Ed Rob Menard's FOTL Claims

Status
Not open for further replies.
Over $100MILLION is discharged student loans would suggest that it is in fact how it is, and not merely how it should be. That is not to say that everything is how I say, but much of it is....

That doesn't address the point I made. If you are telling people of a way to discharge student loans that is accepted by the de facto law then that's a seperate matter. There are certainly ways to discharge student loans that are accepted by the de facto courts. Nobody would dispute that.

However, there is no known instance of a de facto court accepting the argument that individual consent is required in order for statutes to be applicable to them. So even if the many failed attempts have not adopted your logic, you surely must admit that at best you have an untested argument. Until it is accepted by the de facto courts it is irresponsible and misleadaing to say "this is how it is" rather than "here is what I believe to be a good argument."

For instance your example of me hiring a realtor to sell your home without your consent. I agree that I would not be able to do this according to the de facto courts. But the reason I agree is not because such an action offends my personal sense of morality, but because there is no known instance of the de facto court supporting such a position. If the law were to change in this regard then I would have to change my answer and admit that yes in fact I can hire a realtor to sell your house without your consent. This would become the de facto law, regardless of how good a philosophical argument you could make against it.
 
That doesn't address the point I made. If you are telling people of a way to discharge student loans that is accepted by the de facto law then that's a seperate matter. There are certainly ways to discharge student loans that are accepted by the de facto courts. Nobody would dispute that.

However, there is no known instance of a de facto court accepting the argument that individual consent is required in order for statutes to be applicable to them. So even if the many failed attempts have not adopted your logic, you surely must admit that at best you have an untested argument. Until it is accepted by the de facto courts it is irresponsible and misleadaing to say "this is how it is" rather than "here is what I believe to be a good argument."

For instance your example of me hiring a realtor to sell your home without your consent. I agree that I would not be able to do this according to the de facto courts. But the reason I agree is not because such an action offends my personal sense of morality, but because there is no known instance of the de facto court supporting such a position. If the law were to change in this regard then I would have to change my answer and admit that yes in fact I can hire a realtor to sell your house without your consent. This would become the de facto law, regardless of how good a philosophical argument you could make against it.

As an aside, in certain circumstances the government can essentially sell Mr. Menard's house without his consent. Its called expropriation. And those nasty old "de facto courts" just let it happen! Who would have thought?
 
Did I call him 'friend'? Nope you did that! More of your strawman tactics I see. And I doubt he will be wearing his robe for an informal meeting over coffee, but you never know!

No you didn't. However, in court one often refers to the other side as "My learned friend" and presumed that this meeting may have been in this context.
 
As an aside, in certain circumstances the government can essentially sell Mr. Menard's house without his consent. Its called expropriation. And those nasty old "de facto courts" just let it happen! Who would have thought?
I'll go you one better. Under certain circumstances, I could hire a realtor to sell Mr. Menard's house without his consent. How, you ask? Through the magic of common law!

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Adverse_possession
 
As an aside, in certain circumstances the government can essentially sell Mr. Menard's house without his consent. Its called expropriation. And those nasty old "de facto courts" just let it happen! Who would have thought?


Probably those nasty old governments with their Expropriation Acts.:)
 
No you didn't. However, in court one often refers to the other side as "My learned friend" and presumed that this meeting may have been in this context.
You only put a "learned" in there when you're about to really demolish the opposing counsel's legal argument. It's kind of insulting, really.
 
:o

I could certainly see someone in the legal profession addressing Menard in that manner.
 
Last edited:
Man, he's exhausting. How long before we see Mr. Menard on late night infomercials wearing a tuxedo covered in question marks?
 
freemanicmenard wrote
I have to go now, and prepare for my meeting later with a man who agrees with me. And oh, he is a judge.

Drunk%20Bums.jpg


Meeting over.
 
It is not us who when reading the words 'consent of the governed' claim it does not mean 'consent of the governed'. It is the people here who try to claim that it means 'consent of the people'.
It is not us who claim 'equality' does not mean 'equality'. It is the people here who claim 'equality does not mean what you think it means'.
It is not us who label actual law as 'your rules', though it is you who claim your rules are the actual law.
It is not us who stretches the definition of society so that people are deemed to be members not due to their consent as the definition demands, but due only to their existence within a specific geographical area.
It is not us who constantly redefines words in Acts and statutes so they have no resemblance to the English language.

All of this is just semantics ones again. All you are saying is that your interpretation is the correct one and the generally accepted interpretation is wrong. But you give no reasons for why I should accept your interpretation instead of the generally used one.

It is not us who claim that because something is happening, it must be ok, and the people doing it must have the lawful right to do it, for no other reason than they are.

No one is claiming that what is happening is right just because it does. What the rest of us is claiming is that the government have the jurisdiction on their territory and that the same government can change and create laws. (Restricted by the constitution of that country) And your consent to a law is not very interesting since it applies to you anyhow by means of the governments power. For most of the rest of us this is just fine, as long as we live in a democratic society. What you are proposing is not freedom but anarchy. Your ideas are idealistic and require that people stop being selfish bastards, and nothing I have seen supports that notion.

As for people being concerned about my income and if I report it to CRA: Why would I do that if I do not even have an account with them, and who is willing to claim I have a duty or obligation to have a SIN and thus an account with them?

I am pretty certain that even if you do not have an account with them, they have one with you. On a moral note I find your opinion selfish and repugnant. To live in a society and not wanting to contribute to the common good is deplorable. In a modern society you can not opt out of using the public goods.

You people claim to demand 'evidence' and 'proof', but that which you point to in order to support your continued allegations of criminal wrong doing on my part, well that does not qualify as evidence at all does it? But you accept it without question. You require no evidence to justify your hatred and anger and vilification, yet demand it in order to believe in equality and freedom.

See a problem with that?

First: What you propose will not lead to equality and freedom. It will lead to anarchy and the rule of the strongest. Your naivety and idealism blinds you to the examples from history. (I am probably in a minority who believe you are an idealist. :D )

Second: I accept the authority of a democraticly (sp?) elected government and its appointed officers. I also accept the rule of law. If I do not like what the government are doing I protest and act within the democratic system. Primarily by influencing opinions and in elections. I do not go and sulk and say that the rules I do not like do not apply to me.

Third: I think you mix up what IS and what OUGHT to be.

Fourth: I have no hatred or anger towards your ideas or you. If I have any feelings it is a curiosity how you can come to your opinion. And since refuse to answer even the most basic questions I have small hope in understanding you. So I ask again: What do you mean by The Law. What is it? Where can I read it?
 
All I got out of him was "Karma" and "its in your heart".

I also read him mentioning "Gods law" which is equally meaningless. He cant seriously believe that to be ruled by a law that is not written down would constitute freedom!? If he does then I prefer to not be free.
 
Yes, he wants to make the law up as he goes along, he even wants his own police force to do his bidding.
The guy makes it all up as he goes along, I wouldnt waste too much time on him and dont expect any answers, I have been asking him for over two years and still nothing (Yes I have been wasting my time ;))
 
What do you mean by The Law. What is it? Where can I read it?

I'm not entirely sure if this is what Rob's referring to, but my budding FMOTL friend showed me a website which I can not yet link to on here. If you google "maxims of law richard anthony" it should come up. All of the maxims that this fellow lists come from the following sources he cites:

Bouvier's Law Dictionary, by John Bouvier, (1856)
Legal Maxims, by Broom and Bouvier, (1856)
A Dictionary of Law, by William C. Anderson, (1893)
Black's Law Dictionary, by Henry Campell Black, (3rd, 4th, 5th, and 6th Editions, 1933-1990)
Maxims of Law, by Charles A. Weisman, (1990)
 
Unfortunately none of those gentlemen, though no doubt esteemed and brilliant legal scholars, have the authority to make law in Canada (or anywhere else for that matter.) Law-making is a privilege reserved for Parliament and the courts. No doubt those texts may from time to time prove to be very influential in the courts, and particular ideas from those texts may even be adopted into law by the courts, but until they are, they do not have the force of law. Further, it is the way the courts interpret and apply those maxims, and most certainly not the way that Freeman Menard interprets and applies those maxims (unless the two should happen to coincide) that is the law.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.

Back
Top Bottom