I am trying to make sense of the idea that requiring employers to provide contraception violates the first amendment.
The First Amendment:
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.
The argument is that the highlighted part (known as the Free Exercise Clause) prevents the government from prohibiting the free exercise of religion. If the government forces someone to violate their religion (the argument goes) they are prohibiting the person from free exercise of their religion.
The counter-argument is that the Establishment Clause of the First Amendment also prohibits the government from giving preferential treatment to one religion over other religions. The Free Exercise and Establishment clauses of the First Amendment are often in opposition, and the Supreme Court has historically gone back and forth over what is the right balance between not prohibiting the free exercise of religion and not favoring one religion over another (i.e. offering exemptions to certain religions but not others).
Current precedent is set by a 1990 decision in a case called
Employment Division v. Smith, in which the Supreme Court found that if a law is “neutral and generally applicable” (meaning that it is not specifically targeted against any religious group) individuals must comply with it even when doing so imposes a burden on their free exercise of religion. So those who oppose the mandate for employer-provided contraception coverage on strictly constitutional grounds are probably on shaky ground.
However, a 1993 law called The Religious Freedom Restoration Act was adopted by Congress in response to the Supreme Court’s Smith decision and signed into law by President Bill Clinton. It essentially replaces the “neutral and generally applicable” standard set by Smith with one that is far more stringent. It states that even a generally applicable federal law cannot “substantially burden” a person’s exercise of religion unless the law furthers a “compelling government interest” and does so by the “least restrictive means.”
So it's actually not so much a constitutional issue as one of congressional law. Opponents of the mandate requiring employer-provided contraception argue that it either doesn't meet the "compelling government interest" standard or that there are less restrictive means of achieving the same thing (for example, by the government directly covering contraception).
It will be interesting to see what happens here since current lawsuits might backfire on those who oppose Obamacare, since they were the same ones who generally opposed a single-payer system, and it's possible that the government may end up having to provide contraceptive coverage directly which would be closer to a single-payer system than the employer-provided mandate is.
The Washington Post has a decent article concerning the legalities of the issue.
-Bri