ctamblyn
Data Ghost
Continued from another thread, as it didn't really belong there and seems to be an as yet unexplored part of John Duffield / Farsight's unusual perspective on physics, i.e. the topic of this thread:
No, really. And I must say that your implied claim to be an authority on this topic is rather undermined by the fact that you avoided even acknowledging what ought to be two very easy questions which get to the very heart of this matter. I repeat them here for your convenience:
1. Let's say you have a purely radial gravitational field where the magnitude of the field strength, g, is a function only of the radial coordinate r. Show me how you would compute the tidal accelerations at a distance r from the origin (i.e. find a formula for the accelerations in terms of g(r); you can probably even look it up).
2. Following on from the above, suppose we have a field in which g(r) is a constant. Remember, g(r) is only the magnitude of the field, the direction is always radially inwards. Using your answer to part 1, compute the tidal accelerations at distance r in this special case.
I'd have thought that you'd see this is a great opportunity to support your argument rigorously, rather than hand-waving past the issue and appealing to (misinterpreted) authorities. If you avoid answering them yet again, I suppose I'll have to take it as a sign that either (a) you don't know how to answer them, undermining your claim to understand this stuff or (b) you know the answers, but are unwilling to post them because you know they contradict your claims.
ETA: This is in response to Farsight's erroneous claim in the other thread, that a spherically symmetric gravitational field in which the field has constant magnitude g everywhere but points towards the origin is (a) uniform and (b) free of tidal forces. The discussion started around here.
Geddoutofit.No, tidal force is where the force of gravity is different at your feet than your head. The magnitude needn't be greater. Remember, force is a vector!
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No, really. And I must say that your implied claim to be an authority on this topic is rather undermined by the fact that you avoided even acknowledging what ought to be two very easy questions which get to the very heart of this matter. I repeat them here for your convenience:
1. Let's say you have a purely radial gravitational field where the magnitude of the field strength, g, is a function only of the radial coordinate r. Show me how you would compute the tidal accelerations at a distance r from the origin (i.e. find a formula for the accelerations in terms of g(r); you can probably even look it up).
2. Following on from the above, suppose we have a field in which g(r) is a constant. Remember, g(r) is only the magnitude of the field, the direction is always radially inwards. Using your answer to part 1, compute the tidal accelerations at distance r in this special case.
I'd have thought that you'd see this is a great opportunity to support your argument rigorously, rather than hand-waving past the issue and appealing to (misinterpreted) authorities. If you avoid answering them yet again, I suppose I'll have to take it as a sign that either (a) you don't know how to answer them, undermining your claim to understand this stuff or (b) you know the answers, but are unwilling to post them because you know they contradict your claims.
ETA: This is in response to Farsight's erroneous claim in the other thread, that a spherically symmetric gravitational field in which the field has constant magnitude g everywhere but points towards the origin is (a) uniform and (b) free of tidal forces. The discussion started around here.
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