So your qualm is that data on IQ differences across races for example is unreliable because it uses "black" as a category when in fact one genetically different population group of blacks might have a score of 100 and another a score of 90 and another 80?
I'm saying that it is one possibility which is unaccounted for when we look at a few morphological features spread across a range of geographical locations.
The main problem with that arguement is that most racist scientists believe the differences in genetically caused IQ differences are caused by environment and natural selection. The arguement is that alleles for increased intelligence became most prevalent in Europe and north east Asia because of natural selection pressures.
What else would the dominance of certain genetic influences on IQ themselves be influenced by?
A study comparing a similar sized portion of Europe and another region which shows higher IQ scores in Europe isn't invalid just because there may be small populations caught in them that are genetically different and have a much different IQ than the average.
Of course this is the core of the problem - at what level of a population does one need to aim which would give an accurate picture of the genetic relationships between the related constituents?
There's no arguement that conventional racial classifications reflect actual genetic lines and that there's no overlap and similarities.
I'm not so sure that this isn't presumed by a number of scientists who focus on race as a biological category to study. I can see why one would study the socio-cultural and socio-economic relationships with races, as these are heavily influenced by the self-association one nominates for their own racial group. But to study each race across different environments as if they are biological groups assumes there is a genetic basis. It makes as much sense as using blood groups (actually, less, as blood group is at least a firm phenotype which is easily and objectively discerned).
Athon