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Quantum Entanglement

slimshady2357 said:


Hey Tez, can you elaborate a little on this for me, or point me to a good link?

One thing I'm wondering is why it works on subsequent trials, after the first set of measurments, the entanglement is still there?
It's not effected by the measuring in some way?



How would you feel about giving a long winded explanation of exactly how the solution works? :D

Seriously, I'm interested.

Adam

Yeah Adam - the entanglement is destroyed by the measurement.

Heres the solution I posted back then - its exact nature was somewhat affected by the questions and quibbles that people had gone through, but the essence is there. Apologies if its not long winded enough ;)

THE SOLUTION:

Ok heres the solution to the "million dollar challenge" logic-type problem, and I hope it amazes you as much as does me. It turns out that Jandi's reasoning about why they can win in only 75% of cases is correct as it stands, but is fundamentally flawed in that it entails a hidden assumption. The hidden incorrect assumption is that the optimal strategy can be found as a set of "locally constructible answers" for each of the psychics. By "locally constructible answers" I mean a solution strategy which says something like: "If A is asked the X question she should give such and such a answer computed as a function of all the information she has (such as previous questions, previous answers, the other psychics strategies, perhaps some random choices), but if she is asked the Y question she should give this answer...." etc. All such attempts will fail.

Another common but incorrect assumption is this. It seems, to anyone who has sweated over the problem hard enough, that SOME form of information transfer must take place between the psychics if they really are to succeed with 100% probability, since it seems impossible to win 100% of the time without at least one psychic knowing the question that one of the others has been asked. However the problem clearly states (I hope) that no communication (other than telepathic, and we all know what we think of that!) can take place, and so the solution must only take the form of a set of "local physical actions" that each psychic takes, based on whether they have been asked the X or Y question, and these actions can in no way depend on the question another psychic has been asked.

With this in mind, it is important to note that what is being tested are CORRELATIONS between the psychics answers, and not their absolute answers in any sense. For example, the equation XXX=-1 has several solutions, to satisy it you need only a certain correlation between the answers and not any one particular solution. Of course they are being asked for correlated answers based on which one of the four possible sets of correlated questions has been asked, and this is of course where it gets tricky.

All that said, the solution to the problem could be simply stated to a physicist as follows:

1. Before proposing the challenge, the psychics prepare 1000 triplets of particles (say atoms) in the GHZ (or spin-triplet state). Each psychic takes one member of each triplet. (If they're worried about being repeatedly tested by a dastardly and unbelieving Jandi, they can take as many as 10^22 particles - which of course may weigh them down a gram or two, but will allow them to keep passing the test until the end of the universe.)
2. When asked the X question they take a magnet and measure the spin of their particle in the X direction, giving the answer +1 to their captor if the spin is up and -1 if it is down. If they are asked the Y question they measure the spin of their particle in the Y direction, giving the answer +1 to their captor if the spin is up and -1 if it is down.

If they carry out this procedure they are certain to win every time. This is known in Quantum Shmantum circles as the "GHZ nonlocality paradox". It was discovered in 1988 and is much easier to understand than Bell's theorem, the first and most famous such paradox, because it exhibits what might be called "a much stronger nonlocal correlation". The term nonlocal is used beacause it doesn't matter where in the universe the other psychic is, they could be light years away (or next door), the trick will work.

For those with absolutely no physics training let me try and clarify a few things. The spin of the particle is just a physical property of a physical system, no more mysterious than its mass, position, momentum, electric charge, polarization etc. Of course if those words also mean nothing to you then you could still have problems. For this puzzle it doesnt really matter what physical property you choose, as long as it can take at least two values. Spin is physical property which has a value that changes depending on which direction you look at it from. This is not in itself mysterious - imagine a pencil pointing in some direcion, and the physical property you are measuring is whether it points "up" or "down". If you stand on your head, this value will have changed! In the particular setup I described, the magnets being oriented in the X and Y directions just amount to looking at, or measuring, the spin from two different orientations. From each such orientation the spin may appear "up" or "down".

What would actually be observed in the 1000 experiments is the following. Lets focus on the roughly 250 times that all three measure in the X direction. Then each psychic will individually see the spin to be "up" roughly half of the time and "down" the other times. The magic occurs in the correlations. For example when psychic A measures "up" and announces +1 and psychic B measures "down" and announces "-1" then psychic C will be guaranteed to have measured "up" and announce "+1" so that the product of their answers is -1. Just as likely however, is for A to measure "down", B to measure "down" and C to measure "down", which still gives a product -1. In fact all the possible combinations leading to a product of -1 are equally likely when they all measure in the X direction. Similarly when one psychic measures in the X direction and the other two in the Y direction, then all possible combinations leading to a product of +1 are equally likely.

All this kind of upsets physicists, who are used to physical properties of systems behaving in the same inherently logical fashion which may have led you to believe that there really was no way for the psychics to pass this test without being psychic. The trouble you have solving the puzzle is exactly the trouble we have. We want to believe that the physical properties of systems are inherent to, and somehow carried by, those systems, but the GHZ paradox shows that this cannot be so.

Of course I think there are interesting implications for JREF. Most double-blind testing involves looking for correlations between sets of random data. As this puzzle shows there are correlations which may appear impossible, but which are not in fact "unnatural". We dont yet know the full extent of "quantum correlation space", and so someone could presumably get JREF to agree to at least a "preliminary test" which in fact demonstrated not psychic ability but physics ability!

If youre interested in seeing the detailed calculations the original paper is D. Greenberger, M. Horne and A. Zeilinger, in Kafatos, M. "Bell Theorem, Quantum Theory and Conceptions of the Universe", Kluwer, Dordrecht, p.69 (1989), although it wont make much sense unless you have a fairly advanced understanding of quantum mechanics.
The experiment is published in Physical Review Letters, vol. 82, pages 1345-1349 (1999).

So there it is. Of course its really unfair to call this a logic puzzle (I called it a logic-type puzzle!), since the answer is to a certain extent illogical. However I spend many hours of my days (daze?) wondering to what extent we could have dreamt up quantum mechanics if we didn't have had the experimental evidence to follow - this has implications for those of us looking for deeper theories and for deeper understanding of quantum mechanics, since at present there are no unexplained experiments to guide us.

And to anyone who (quite rightly) complains that the answer is not reasonably solved by a non-physicist, I reply that puzzles about baseball trivia are far more obscure to me! I guess I just want people to be aware that quantum mechanics can be interesting even without a training in physics, and that the conceptual problems of the theory go far beyond the "particles are sometimes waves" drivel you read in a lot of "for the layman" accounts.

ADDED STUFF:

Q: Why can the psychics not measure the spins before they are asked the questions?
A: The reason you cant measure the spins beforehand is because of something else that pisses us off about quantum mechanics - when you make a measurement of one quantity, there are often other physical quantities whose results get randomized by your measurement. We say these quantities "don't commute". For example if you do measurement of spin in the X direction followed by a measurement of spin in the Y direction you do not necessarily observe the same thing as if you measure in the Y direction followed by a measurement in the X direction. Thus the psychics cannot pre-measure here - they need to know whether they should look in the X or in the Y direction - if they do premeasure and it happens that they premeasured in the Y direction but were actually asked the X question, they'll have buggered things up and the magic correlations will no longer be present...

Q: Can I see the calculations?
ok basically the spin triplet state (or GHZ state) is
|GHZ>=(|+z>|+z>|+z> - |-z>|-z>|-z>)/sqrt(2)
where these are the spins in the Z basis (spin along the Z direction). So |+z> means spin "up" in the z direction, |-z> means "down". Its an entangled state of three particles.
Lets imagine psychic A is asked the X question, the other two the Y question. To see what possible outcomes they will get, we rewrite this state using the X basis for the first particle, defined by:
|+x>=(|+z> + |-z>)/sqrt(2), |-x>=(|+z> - |-z>)/sqrt(2),
and the Y basis for the other two particles, it is defined by:
|+y>= (|+z> + i*|-z>)/sqrt(2), |-y>=(|+z> - i*|-z>)/sqrt(2),
then you get that the state |GHZ> is also equivalent to:
|GHZ>=(|+x>|+y>|+y> + |+x>|-y>|-y> + |-x>|+y>|-y> + |-x>|-y>|+y>)/2
Thus after the measurements the state will collapse to one of the 4 possibilities in the above superposition with equal likelihood, and as you can see if they answer "+1" or "-1" based on their outcome the product of their answers will always be "+1".
Similarly you can rewrite the state using the X basis for all three psychics, and you get this:
|GHZ>=(|+x>|+x>|-x> + |+x>|-x>|+x> + |-x>|+x>|+x> + |-x>|-x>|-x>)/2,
and thus the product of their answers will be "-1"...
 
Thanks for the answer Tez :)

I thought they must have a thousand triplets.... but then how do they contain them? How do they know which ones to test when? Do they keep them all neatly numbered in a thousand different containers? :D

Just some practical problems that lead me to question whether there wasn't some way they were using the same triplet the entire time, which didn't really make sense, so I asked :)

And of the explanation, I was most grateful for the last paragraph. Although the notation was foreign, there was enough explanation to figure out what was going on and it was this finer detail that I was curious about :)

Thanks again :)

Adam
 
Thanks, Tez. That puzzle and your explanation was the best view into the QM world I've seen in a long time. Very weird stuff!
 
No problem - I'm somewhat like an evangelical preacher about this stuff, so I'm glad you both got something from it.

Once one realises how beautiful and mysterious the behaviours of quantum mechanical systems are, it becomes clear that the claimed supernatural abilities of psychics are merely pathetic, anthropocentric fictions, which are neither super nor natural...
 
Tez said:
IT shows that either some form of information travels faster than light (which does not necessarily mean signal transfer FTL) or that "everything is connected" (the ontic objects of the universe are nonlocal entities).
By "everything is connected" I presume you mean that entangled particles are connected. Not everything.

The other possibility I've heard is that particles do not exist until they are measured. Is that bogus, or equivalent to one of these two? It sounds odd to me because I don't see how it eliminates the need for either FTL or connection.

Which choice to you vote for, Tez?

~~Paul
 
Tez said:
Once one realises how beautiful and mysterious the behaviours of quantum mechanical systems are, it becomes clear that the claimed supernatural abilities of psychics are merely pathetic, anthropocentric fictions, which are neither super nor natural...

Somehow I knew you were going to say that! ;)
 
Paul C. Anagnostopoulos said:
Tez said:
By "everything is connected" I presume you mean that entangled particles are connected. Not everything.

I wish. Unfortunately the vacuum is also entangled!

The other possibility I've heard is that particles do not exist until they are measured. Is that bogus, or equivalent to one of these two? It sounds odd to me because I don't see how it eliminates the need for either FTL or connection.

Yeah - I've never really understood how going to the extreme forsaking all forms of realism buys you much in terms of understanding this.


Which choice to you vote for, Tez?

I believe the ontic objects of the universe are nonlocal in both space and time. (We for example are local in space, nonlocal in time. A vacuum fluctuation is local in time, nonlocal in space) However I believe much of the formalism of QM - noncommutaivity, interference etc emerges from the limitations we, as the particular physical creatures we are, have in processing the information about the world around us. I'm writing a (what I hop will be) accessible paper on this at the moment; will post a link to it here when its done...

~~Paul
 
RichardR said:
What do you mean by "ontic objects"?

its somewhat loose terminology, but I mean the things which actually exist.

When you do physics you need to use what philosophers call a "bridge principle" between your mathematics and this actual universe. Some elements of the mathematical formalism we do not take to be fundamental, in as much as they dont represent something we believe to be "really out there". A probability distribution for example. It reflects knowledge I have about whats out there, but there is no isomorphism between probability distributions and trees and flowers (if you take trees and flowers to be ontic!).
 
Tez said:
its somewhat loose terminology, but I mean the things which actually exist.

When you do physics you need to use what philosophers call a "bridge principle" between your mathematics and this actual universe. Some elements of the mathematical formalism we do not take to be fundamental, in as much as they dont represent something we believe to be "really out there". A probability distribution for example. It reflects knowledge I have about whats out there, but there is no isomorphism between probability distributions and trees and flowers (if you take trees and flowers to be ontic!).
That's much clearer. Thanks.
 
Tez said:
its somewhat loose terminology, but I mean the things which actually exist.

When you do physics you need to use what philosophers call a "bridge principle" between your mathematics and this actual universe.

:rolleyes: There is no bridge. Reality is qualia. Mathematics simply can be used to accurately describe the systematic patterns in our qualia. The notion of the ontologically self-subsistent unperceived is metaphysical garbage.
 
I have read Paul Davies book, The ghost in the Atom!
He interviewes 8 Quantum Physicists about their interpretations, all of them reject faster than light signaling as explanation to Alain Aspects experiment, except John Bell! Bell prefer faster than light signaling in the eather, but the rest of them concider that faster than light mathematical objects, or Photon switcher A influnence photon counter B instantly, without this influence traveling between A and B. Just as an electron jumps to higher, or lower energy levels, without have been between these energy levels, that is a discontinious transfer of energy, it is smiliar to use a elevator from level 1 to 2 without have been between! It simply two positions without momentum!
 
Interesting Ian said:
:rolleyes: There is no bridge. Reality is qualia. Mathematics simply can be used to accurately describe the systematic patterns in our qualia. The notion of the ontologically self-subsistent unperceived is metaphysical garbage.
Yes of course, Ian. You’re absolutely right; thanks for putting us straight again.
 
Ian,

There is no bridge. Reality is qualia. Mathematics simply can be used to accurately describe the systematic patterns in our qualia. The notion of the ontologically self-subsistent unperceived is metaphysical garbage.

This is the science board, not the philosophy board. Your idealistic notion that reality is not actually objective, but rather just behaves as if it were, violates Occam's razor, and must therefore be rejected by science. Idealism is metaphysical garbage.

Dr. Stupid
 
Stimpson J. Cat said:
Ian,



This is the science board, not the philosophy board. Your idealistic notion that reality is not actually objective, but rather just behaves as if it were, violates Occam's razor, and must therefore be rejected by science. Idealism is metaphysical garbage.

Dr. Stupid


Where have I stated that reality is not objective?

Even if idealism states reality is not objective, in what sense could that conceivably be said to violate Ockham's razor?

If science does not concern itself with philosophy at all, how does this square with the notion that there is a reality in abstraction from our perceptions or measurements?
 
Ian,

Where have I stated that reality is not objective?

That is exactly what it means to say that reality is our perceptions (qualia), rather than what we perceive.

Even if idealism states reality is not objective, in what sense could that conceivably be said to violate Ockham's razor?

By itself, it doesn't. But to claim that the scientific method should work in an idealistic framework requires you to assume that reality behaves exactly as though it were objective, but isn't. This is exactly the type of nonsense that Occam's razor is there to eliminate.

If science does not concern itself with philosophy at all, how does this square with the notion that there is a reality in abstraction from our perceptions or measurements?

It does concern itself with philosophy. But since this is the science board, and not a philosophy board, this is not the place to be discussing philosophical frameworks other than the one which the scientific method is based on.

If you want to start a thread discussing these issues, feel free. But please do so in the philosophy board. The discussion here is about Quantum Mechanics, it is not a pulpit for you to preach your beliefs.

Of course, if you actually have anything scientific to contribute, by all means feel free.

Dr. Stupid
 
RichardR said:
Originally posted by Interesting Ian
There is no bridge. Reality is qualia. Mathematics simply can be used to accurately describe the systematic patterns in our qualia. The notion of the ontologically self-subsistent unperceived is metaphysical garbage.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Yes of course, Ian. You’re absolutely right; thanks for putting us straight again.

Ummmm . . .don't mention it. But I suspect you don't understand what I'm talking about?

What I'm suggesting is that reality is nothing over and above our sensory perceptions. In other words, our sensory perceptions constitute reality. To take an example of what I'm denying; when I see redness, it is normally supposed that the "true reality" is a certain wavelength of electromagnetic radiation which the brain interprets as the certain characteristic experience of redness. But strictly speaking, the redness is not out there in the world, so to speak. Rather the redness, as experienced, is an artifact of the mind. The redness as experienced does not constitute the furniture of the world. The true reality merely consists of certain wavelenghts of light, and if the world/Universe were totally devoid of any sentient beings, then redness as experienced would simply not have any reality at all. All that would exist is certain wavelengths of light.

Similar reasoning can be extended to all of our sensory perceptions. What we actually sensorily experience is simply a refection of the underlying reality of the world. Our sensory perceptions though (ie everything we ever experience), do not really consitute reality, but are a lie.

I suggest the opposite. I suggest that our sensory experiences are the reality, and the physical picture we draw up about the world has only got mathematical reality.

In other words, it is not the case that redness as experienced is simply an illusion, with a certain wavelength of electromagnetic radiation being the true reality. On the contrary, it is the redness, as experinced, which constitutes reality, with the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation, supposedly causing this experience of redness, being simply a mathematical device to describe and predict the course of our sensory experiences.

I believe that quantum mechanics lends support to my hypothesis which I could go into more detail if required.
 
Stimpson J. Cat said:
Ian,



That is exactly what it means to say that reality is our perceptions (qualia), rather than what we perceive.



By itself, it doesn't. But to claim that the scientific method should work in an idealistic framework requires you to assume that reality behaves exactly as though it were objective, but isn't. This is exactly the type of nonsense that Occam's razor is there to eliminate.



It does concern itself with philosophy. But since this is the science board, and not a philosophy board, this is not the place to be discussing philosophical frameworks other than the one which the scientific method is based on.

If you want to start a thread discussing these issues, feel free. But please do so in the philosophy board. The discussion here is about Quantum Mechanics, it is not a pulpit for you to preach your beliefs.

Of course, if you actually have anything scientific to contribute, by all means feel free.

Dr. Stupid

Stimpy,

I regret having irritated you. But I submit that if we're not simply talking about QM as in how effectively it describes reality, but are concerned about what it implies about the nature of reality, then by definition we are introducing philosophical considerations.

BTW could you tell me what philosophical framework science is based upon? How is this justified?
 
Interesting Ian said:
Ummmm . . .don't mention it. But I suspect you don't understand what I'm talking about?
Oh I think I get the gist. We’ve been over this (“redness, as experienced, is an artifact of the mind” etc etc), numerous times.

And I repeat - you’re absolutely right; thanks for putting us straight again.

(One less thing to worry about, Tez.)
 
Tez said:
I wish. Unfortunately the vacuum is also entangled!
What does this mean? Do you mean that entangled particles might pop out of the vacuum?

Am I correct in assuming that two entangled particles become disentangled if one of them has an interaction with a third particle? The universe isn't one giant entanglement, is it?

~~ Paul
 

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