So, what I'm getting, and maybe I'm reaching, is that law should conform to the purposes of its society rather than society conforming to the purposes of its laws?
Is that a reasonable statement or am I mixing ideas?
Well, I think that's the way law works -- at least in theory -- in a democratic society. The laws are made by the parliament, and the parliament is elected by the majority of society. So theoretically, society chooses the rules of law, and any new law or change in the law is due to -- again in theory -- a change in attitude of the majority of society.
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