cyborg
deus ex machina
- Joined
- Aug 12, 2005
- Messages
- 4,981
But if you criticize his logic, then it implies you are smarter than him, and you can't do that.
'Smart' is simply being right. If his logic's not right he's not being smart is he?
But if you criticize his logic, then it implies you are smarter than him, and you can't do that.
But if you criticize his logic, then it implies you are smarter than him,
No, it doesn't. People make mistakes in logic. (See Wason's three-card task for examples.)
Do good quarterbacks throw interceptions? According to Sports Illustrated, every NFL starting quarterback has already thrown at least one interception this season -- and these are the best in the business. A good quarterback isn't one who never throws interceptions. He's one who doesn't throw them often.
Do good kickers miss field goals? Five kickers haven't missed a field goal yet this year. Shall we say that those are the only five good kickers in the world? If Jeff Reed misses one next year, does that drop the total to four good kickers?
Yes, but religion is something extremely important in someone's life.
So when you criticize something that is that important in the life of a smart person, that he builds a large part of his life around, does it imply then that you are smarter than him?
Where is the ad hom? The implied statement "Whatever is anti-democratic is wrong" is not a personal accusation.
With regards to statements such as "He is wrong because he is stupid" - It seems quite plausible that stupid people will be wrong, at least much more plausible than they will be wrong than smart people. So if someone is stupid, that increases the probability that he is wrong. Even if it is classified as an ad hominem, it seems a reasonable statement to me.
Yes, but the term ad hominem is still used. And it's still a fallacy because "anti-democratic" is unrelated to the truth or falsity of a statement.
Actually, I'm not sure I agree with you here. I don't see how a proposition (remember that only propositions are true or false) can be democratic or anti-democratic. Propositions don't vote.
"Reasonable statements" can still be fallacious. (I told you earlier to look up "fallacy.") The problem is that the biggest fool in the world can say the sun is shining, but that doesn't make it dark out. Just because something is "likely to be" true doesn't make it true. And
Because the argument can lead from a true premise to a false conclusion.
I play trivial pursuit on Wednesday nights with Richard Dawkins, Stephen Hawking, Murray Gell-Mann, and Albert Einstein. I'm by far the dumbest player in the room. I always lose. But Albert doesn't get them all right, either. if Albert tells me that he believes that the capital of Colorado is Boulder, and I tell him that it isn't, that doesn't make me arrogant. After all, he's a physicist, not a geographer.
Yes, but religion is something extremely important in someone's life. So when you criticize something that is that important in the life of a smart person, that he builds a large part of his life around, does it imply then that you are smarter than him?
You say that if a certain form of argument can lead from a true premise to a false conclusion, then it is always wrong.
A certain form of argument (an appeal to popular opinion) might be wrong, when it comes to physical objects, but not wrong when it comes to immaterial entities.
But it might be that material an immaterial subjects are just so different that you cannot conclude from the inability to use a certain form of argument for one - to another.
No, and there is no need to. I think this has been covered already in this thread.Can you prove the rules of logic somehow?
If there is no proof for logic, how can one be so sure in it?
Useless distinction. "Important" is relative.
Exactly wrong. I say that if a certain form of argument can lead from a true premise to a false conclusion, then it is always fallacious. That's because fallacy means "a form of argument that can lead from a true premise to a false conclusion." Fallaciouis arguments can have true conclusions, but only by chance, since the truth or falsity of the conclusion is more or less independent of the truth of the premises.
Furthermore, I will also state that if a certain form of argument can lead from a true premise to a false conlcusion, then that argument is always unreliable, which means we cannot rely on it as a method of obtaining truth.
Yes, and that's another fallacy -- "special pleading" -- because it can lead from true premises to false conclusions. And, as a fallacy, it's unreliable and can be safely disregarded by a rational observer.
You can use some reasoning in math, that you cannot use in science for example.
Like what? Give an example, please, of reasoning that is used in math that can't be used in science, or vice-versa.
Can you give an example why is this type of reasoning wrong?
Special Pleading is a fallacy in which a person applies standards, principles, rules, etc. to others while taking herself (or those she has a special interest in) to be exempt, without providing adequate justification for the exemption. This sort of "reasoning" has the following form:
1. Person A accepts standard(s) S and applies them to others in circumtance(s) C.
2. Person A is in circumstance(s) C.
3. Therefore A is exempt from S.
The person committing Special Pleading is claiming that he is exempt from certain principles or standards yet he provides no good reason for his exemption. That this sort of reasoning is fallacious is shown by the following extreme example:
1. Barbara accepts that all murderers should be punished for their crimes.
2. Although she murdered Bill, Barbara claims she is an exception because she really would not like going to prison.
3. Therefore, the standard of punishing murderers should not be applied to her.
This is obviously a blatant case of special pleading. Since no one likes going to prison, this cannot justify the claim that Barbara alone should be exempt from punishment.
ETA: a more declarative version would be
A: All cats have four legs
B: Except for my cat, Fluffy
C: My cat, Fluffy, has only three legs.
It is literally impossible for statements A and C to be true at the same time; if A is ttrue, then C must be false. Therefore, an argument by special pleading can lead from a true premise to a false conclusion -- and is therefore fallacious.
Sure. Here's an example from nizkor.org
Similary, the idea that ordinary rules of logic apply to everything except your particular pet woo is a blatant case of special pleading. You cannot justify the claim that immaterial beings are exempt from the rules of logic.
ETA: a more declarative version would be
A: All cats have four legs
B: Except for my cat, Fluffy
C: My cat, Fluffy, has only three legs.
It is literally impossible for statements A and C to be true at the same time; if A is ttrue, then C must be false. Therefore, an argument by special pleading can lead from a true premise to a false conclusion -- and is therefore fallacious.
A. As defined, a cat is an animal with four legs.
B. My cat has three legs.
C. Therefore, mine is not a cat.
Now then. Those true premises do not lead to that conclusion, because we can think of exceptions to A, even though, as stated, A is true.
The argument, therefore, is fallacious. It's flawed.
Sorry to butt in, but I'm not sure that C is a conclusion. I can't rationally insert a "therefore."