Again, you fail to understand where you've gone wrong with your statements, despite it being explained to you. Yes, the generally applied to the first part of the sentence. However, you're failing, still, to understand the nuance of "per se". Per se is something to be used without qualification. Period. If a statement requires qualification, useof "per se" in regards to it is incorrect.
The use of "generally" says that the show you refer to is not always the things you have described. Therefore, it cannot be the things you have described "per se".