Badly Shaved Monkey
Anti-homeopathy illuminati member
- Joined
- Feb 5, 2004
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Wrath of the Swarm said:From a post of mine on page 4:
Now: let's say that the chance of false positives isn't the same as false negatives. Oh, the first is .40 and the second is .30, just to pick two random numbers.
Now, let's say we use a group of 10 sick patients for the test. We get no false positives (since everyone is sick) and 3 false negatives. So the accuracy is 3/10 or .30.
Now let's use a group of 10 healthy patients. We get no false negatives and 4 false positives. Accuracy is .40.
Now let's use 5 healthy and 5 sick patients. We get 5 * .4 false positives and 5 * .3 false negatives, for a total of (on average) 3.5
wrong answers out of ten.
See? The accuracy changes depending on the population.
Now let's pretend the false positive rate is .40 and the false negative rate is also .40.
In the first case, we get an accuracy of .40, just like the second case.
In the third case, we get 5 * .4 false positives and 5 * .4 false negatives, for an overall accuracy of .40.
No matter what sample population I give the test, it will always have an accuracy of .40.
Thanks for finding that.
I see the problem now. You think that by specifiying accuracy to be 99% and giving no other information means that it must mean sens and spec are both 99% or else you would have given us those parameters separately. I'm not sure how we wwere to know that, but I can see that is probably what you thought.
Yes? At last?