Physical implications of Kalām argument

Then you can ignore this bit, if you feel it is going off-topic. But my point is that moments do not lie on a timeline. The timeline is made of moments. So for it to be infinitely long, there would have to be an infinite number of moments.

Could be; who knows? Depends on how you want to define moment, I guess.

I'm not sure what, exactly, you're asking us to do here. What's your question?






Isn't "event" just the term for a point in spacetime? According to wiki:

Sure, but I was trying to just get a point across: I'm concerned that you seem more concerned about micromanaging the analogy than with what I'm trying to convey. I've exhausted two analogies and you're not addressing the point I was trying to make with them.

(sigh) What term do you want me to use to refer to positions strictly in time, and I'll use that.






That's why I claim that a universe which is not finite in both time and space will contain an infinite number of events.

I guess, but I thought your 'question' was that we assume a finite universe.

I thought you were asking about the implications of a finite universe, and possibly you were specifically asking about the implications of a universe with a first moment?

I'm really struggling with what you're trying to do here.
 
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1. No infinite set can exist in the physical world.

As far as I can tell we do not know. Spacially we have found the LOWER bound of the universe (what minimum size it has, if sized) if one is to believe some of the peer reviewed article it is somewhere around at least 40 something billion light year. So if the universe is finite (IF) then it is at least that size.

But there is no argument/falsification against the universe being spacially infinite, with only matter being at a certain radius, with us being somwhere inside, and outside that radius emptyness up the wazoo to the inifinity.
 
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Could be; who knows? Depends on how you want to define moment, I guess.

(sigh) What term do you want me to use to refer to positions strictly in time, and I'll use that.

I'd define a moment as a coordinate in time, just like you do in post #59. That's why I'm confused by your claim that there can be a finite number of moments in a universe with non-discrete time. If time is continuous, there will be a t=1, t=1.1, t=1.11, etc—an uncountably infinite number of moments.

I'm not sure what, exactly, you're asking us to do here. What's your question?

If I'm correct that requiring a finite number of moments necessarily requires time to have a starting-point, an end-point and also to be discrete.

Sure, but I was trying to just get a point across: I'm concerned that you seem more concerned about micromanaging the analogy than with what I'm trying to convey. I've exhausted two analogies and you're not addressing the point I was trying to make with them.

I still cannot see what your point is, I'm sorry.

I guess, but I thought your 'question' was that we assume a finite universe.

I thought you were asking about the implications of a finite universe, and possibly you were specifically asking about the implications of a universe with a first moment?

I'm really struggling with what you're trying to do here.

I'm asking if the universe is necessarily finite, assuming a finite number of points in spacetime. I think it would have to be, but you seem to disagree. Maybe because we don't seem to agree on what a point in spacetime is.

ETA: Just had a thought about post #59. Could you actually have atoms at an infinite distance from each other? Just because there is no upper bound to how far away they can be, that doesn't mean that they can actually be "infinitely" far away, does it?
 
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I'd define a moment as a coordinate in time, just like you do in post #59. That's why I'm confused by your claim that there can be a finite number of moments in a universe with non-discrete time. If time is continuous, there will be a t=1, t=1.1, t=1.11, etc—an uncountably infinite number of moments.

I'm not claiming that the are a finite moments in time, and I don't personally think this is true - you asked me to assume this as true as part of the point of this thread.

I was trying to work within your request.

I don't think it's possible for me to continue in the thread until there's some clarification of what you're trying to achieve here.








I'm asking if the universe is necessarily finite, assuming a finite number of points in spacetime. I think it would have to be, but you seem to disagree. Maybe because we don't seem to agree on what a point in spacetime is.

I'm not the only one. The previous poster reflects my thoughts: finite contents does not make a finite container.

Again: I think you'll have to clarify what assumptions we're supposed to make, because I was under the impression that the question was about consequences of assuming that the universe is finite, not ask if it may or may not be finite.

It seems more like you're asking us to back off of that, and are you asking if the universe is finite or not? Are you also maybe asking if spacetime may be discreetly segmented or granular instead of continuous?

This sounds like you actually are interested in evaluating the merits of Premise #1. To address that last question: the universe could be discreet but still infinite.

This is actually is related to Kalam's argument in that he misunderstood (or had never heard of) cardinality. (a philosopher making math arguments when he probably hasn't taken a math course since grade 9)

Consider these two exercises:

  • The impact of finite sets on the dimension.
    Consider the set of integers between 0 and 2 ({1}) - this is a finite set. Why would anybody believe that this implies or proves that the numbering system must end somewhere before it reaches infinity? I think a more rigid proof is required to endorse this claim.
  • The impact of cardinality on the dimension.
    The set of digits is not continuous on the number line. It is completely discretized. Why would this imply that they are finite, or that the numbering system cannot extend infinitely?

This was Kalam's argument, basically: "I don't understand infinity, so it can't be a real thing."

(or rephrased: "I have assumed the concept of infinity is false, and thus proven that the universe is not infinitely large." - a circular argument)





ETA: Just had a thought about post #59. Could you actually have atoms at an infinite distance from each other? Just because there is no upper bound to how far away they can be, that doesn't mean that they can actually be "infinitely" far away, does it?

Who knows? This is a philosophical exercise in metaphysics, not an investigation about physics.

The confusing part about this, though, is that the universe is regarded as pretty much bounded in spacetime anyway, so the 'consequences' of this being true are: 'see all current scientific theories.'
 
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I'm not claiming that the are a finite moments in time, and I don't personally think this is true - you asked me to assume this as true as part of the point of this thread.

I was trying to work within your request.

I don't think it's possible for me to continue in the thread until there's some clarification of what you're trying to achieve here.
I'm sorry, but we seem to be failing very badly to communicate. You never claimed that there is a finite number of moments in time. I never said that you did. But some of your post seem to imply that it is—in principle—possible to have a finite number of moments in a spacetime which is not discrete and bounded, and that is what confused me.

What I'm trying to achieve is basically this:

I have heard the Kalām argument a couple of times. It always consists of starting from premise #1 and trying to demonstrate that therefore, time cannot stretch infinitely far back, because that is generally the only thing the person using the argument is interested in—showing that there had to be a moment of creation.

I've never heard anyone ask what other effects #1 would have if it were true. For example, it seems equally reasonable to say that it implies that time cannot stretch infinitely forward, which actually does make a sort of prediction about the universe (it will not expand forever, for example). What I want to achieve with this thread is to see which actual predictions can be made about the universe, assuming #1 is true. There is no real reason for doing this, beyond curiosity.

I'm not the only one. The previous poster reflects my thoughts: finite contents does not make a finite container.

Again: I think you'll have to clarify what assumptions we're supposed to make, because I was under the impression that the question was about consequences of assuming that the universe is finite, not ask if it may or may not be finite.

It seems more like you're asking us to back off of that, and are you asking if the universe is finite or not? Are you also maybe asking if spacetime may be discreetly segmented or granular instead of continuous?

This sounds like you actually are interested in evaluating the merits of Premise #1. To address that last question: the universe could be discreet but still infinite.

I'm asking if the universe being finite and discrete necessarily follows from #1. In post #31 I tried to explain that I think both of them necessarily follow because, as you said, an infinite discrete space is still infinite, albeit countably.

I suppose you could see this as a way of evaluating #1, but what I'm doing is just trying to make predictions based on #1 and—if possible, which I admit does not seem to be very often—checking them off against reality.

Hm... We seem to be meaning slightly different things when saying that space is "infinite". I'd consider any space with finite volume to be finite—I'm not saying that it has to have any borders or anything.

This is actually is related to Kalam's argument in that he misunderstood (or had never heard of) cardinality. (a philosopher making math arguments when he probably hasn't taken a math course since grade 9)

Consider these two exercises:

  • The impact of finite sets on the dimension.
    Consider the set of integers between 0 and 2 ({1}) - this is a finite set. Why would anybody believe that this implies or proves that the numbering system must end somewhere before it reaches infinity? I think a more rigid proof is required to endorse this claim.
  • The impact of cardinality on the dimension.
    The set of digits is not continuous on the number line. It is completely discretized. Why would this imply that they are finite, or that the numbering system cannot extend infinitely?

This was Kalam's argument, basically: "I don't understand infinity, so it can't be a real thing."

(or rephrased: "I have assumed the concept of infinity is false, and thus proven that the universe is not infinitely large." - a circular argument)

Who knows? This is a philosophical exercise in metaphysics, not an investigation about physics.

Yes. A discussion of whether #1 is actually a reasonable premise is philosophical, which is why I've tried to avoid it.

The confusing part about this, though, is that the universe is regarded as pretty much bounded in spacetime anyway, so the 'consequences' of this being true are: 'see all current scientific theories.'

True. But #1 would, for example, (once again, assuming I'm correct that #1 in turn implies that space is closed) imply that the universe does not have a hyperbolic geometry. This is not much of a prediction, since we were pretty sure of that already, I admit.

ps. Kalām isn't a person.
 
As far as I can tell we do not know. Spacially we have found the LOWER bound of the universe (what minimum size it has, if sized) if one is to believe some of the peer reviewed article it is somewhere around at least 40 something billion light year. So if the universe is finite (IF) then it is at least that size.

But there is no argument/falsification against the universe being spacially infinite, with only matter being at a certain radius, with us being somwhere inside, and outside that radius emptyness up the wazoo to the inifinity.

But if it was discovered that space had—on very large scales—spherical geometry. Wouldn't that make it most reasonable to assume that it was in fact closed, with a finite radius?

ETA: And if it turned out to be hyperbolic, it would most likely be infinite. But as long as it keeps turning out to be flat, on any scale we can see, it will be possible for people to claim that it's either spherical or hyperbolic on a larger scale.
 
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If the premise #1 in the OP implies that the time is finite (in both directions) then, as has already been stated, the universe must end. So the question is, end how? Big crunch? Dissipate into a thin gas/dust? If it ends in a big crunch, then wouldn't there still be a singularity? Big black hole? How would that go away? Would that singularity exist forever; no -- that is ruled out by #1? There is no physical law (correct me here if I'm wrong) allowing all that mass to disappear. So, #1 is contradicted.
Now if instead we have a big dissipation, again that mass is still there (unimaginably thinned out). Again it cannot simply disappear. So it is there forever -- again that is ruled out by #1. So, unless mass can somehow disappear, it seems that following premise #1 leads to a contradiction, what other implications can it have?
 
If the premise #1 in the OP implies that the time is finite (in both directions) then, as has already been stated, the universe must end. So the question is, end how? Big crunch? Dissipate into a thin gas/dust? If it ends in a big crunch, then wouldn't there still be a singularity? Big black hole? How would that go away? Would that singularity exist forever; no -- that is ruled out by #1? There is no physical law (correct me here if I'm wrong) allowing all that mass to disappear. So, #1 is contradicted.
Now if instead we have a big dissipation, again that mass is still there (unimaginably thinned out). Again it cannot simply disappear. So it is there forever -- again that is ruled out by #1. So, unless mass can somehow disappear, it seems that following premise #1 leads to a contradiction, what other implications can it have?

As we've discussed at length, there is no law of physics (that I'm aware of at least) that forbids time from "ending" or "beginning".

Conservation of energy tells you energy doesn't change with time. It does not tell you time exists on an infinite interval. Does conservation of momentum prove that space must be infinite? No - and the analogy to energy and time is exact.

Causality doesn't tell you that either, nor does the existence of a bounded interval imply either a first or last cause, or that there was an event with no cause.

So while the argument as it was presented in the OP is obviously invalid, it's not because of that.
 
If the premise #1 in the OP implies that the time is finite (in both directions) then, as has already been stated, the universe must end. So the question is, end how? Big crunch? Dissipate into a thin gas/dust? If it ends in a big crunch, then wouldn't there still be a singularity? Big black hole? How would that go away? Would that singularity exist forever; no -- that is ruled out by #1? There is no physical law (correct me here if I'm wrong) allowing all that mass to disappear. So, #1 is contradicted.
Now if instead we have a big dissipation, again that mass is still there (unimaginably thinned out). Again it cannot simply disappear. So it is there forever -- again that is ruled out by #1. So, unless mass can somehow disappear, it seems that following premise #1 leads to a contradiction, what other implications can it have?
I don't know. Most theories involving a Big Crunch I've seen have seemed to imply that time would somehow end there. I read A Brief History of Time recently and the model Hawking described there (which, AFAIK, is no longer used) showed time starting at the Big Bang and ending at the Big Crunch. But now that you mention it, I realise I've never wondered why time would end just because you re-squeeze matter into infinite density.
 
As we've discussed at length, there is no law of physics (that I'm aware of at least) that forbids time from "ending" or "beginning".

Conservation of energy tells you energy doesn't change with time. It does not tell you time exists on an infinite interval. Does conservation of momentum prove that space must be infinite? No - and the analogy to energy and time is exact.

Causality doesn't tell you that either, nor does the existence of a bounded interval imply either a first or last cause, or that there was an event with no cause.

So while the argument as it was presented in the OP is obviously invalid, it's not because of that.

But you did not say anything about the point that all the matter in the universe cannot simply vanish. If matter still exists, how can time simply stop?
 
But you did not say anything about the point that all the matter in the universe cannot simply vanish. If matter still exists, how can time simply stop?

Read your question agains, carefully.

"Vanish" means something was there at one time, and at a later time it wasn't. But what if there was no later time? Something vanishing is completely different from time ending - they're two totally separate concepts.

"If matter still exists, how can time simply stop?" - that's like asking "if this pen is yellow, how can it be red"?

And time doesn't have to end for it to be finite - it could be periodic, for example. Maybe your big crunch is also the big bang.
 
Read your question agains, carefully.

"Vanish" means something was there at one time, and at a later time it wasn't. But what if there was no later time? Something vanishing is completely different from time ending - they're two totally separate concepts.

"If matter still exists, how can time simply stop?" - that's like asking "if this pen is yellow, how can it be red"?

And time doesn't have to end for it to be finite - it could be periodic, for example. Maybe your big crunch is also the big bang.

OK, we have have a universe full of matter/energy. To my knowledge all models of the universe have that matter/energy doing something like contracting, expanding, oscillating, etc. The matter/energy in the universe is conserved. Since it must always exist, what does it mean to exist if not exist in time? Can it exist in "non-time"? What does that mean?
 
. The matter/energy in the universe is conserved.

All that means is that the total is the same at all times. It says nothing about what those times are. Moreover that total is exactly zero in a closed universe.

Since it must always exist, what does it mean to exist if not exist in time? Can it exist in "non-time"?

You're creating semantic "paradoxes" for yourself again. You declare "it must always exist". That might be true, depending on what "always" means.

What does that mean?

You tell us...
 
I've always held the naive notion that infinity is an interesting , but wholly imaginary concept.
By definition, the existence of a single infinite quantity of anything leaves no room, material, or time for anything else.
And since inspection reveals at least three or four different things on this keyboard (one of which appears to be alive) there would seem to be no infinite quantity of anything.

As for the more abstract idea of infinite numbers (or any other wholly imaginary things), I will personally believe they exist when I see one actually counted. Until then , I put them in the same box as flying saucers, ghosts and other imaginary things.

Having said that, I'm still unable to see how we get from Point 1 in the OP to point 2.
 
This thread more or less instantly got derailed into a discussion of the Kalām cosmological argument. The argument—as I understand it—goes basically:

1. No infinite set can exist in the physical world.

. . . QUOTE]

Somebody with more mathematics than me feel free to correct me if I’m wrong, but I thought that fractal geometry has already show how things can be bounded, but infinite, thus kicking #1 in the groin from the get go.
 
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Somebody with more mathematics than me feel free to correct me if I’m wrong, but I thought that fractal geometry has already show how things can be bounded, but infinite, thus kicking #1 in the groin from the get go.
Mathematicians have been dealing with bounded but infinite topological spaces for quite a while (before fractal geometry). Mathematicians also deal with finite spaces that have no boundary. Hence the argument is bogus for both of these reasons (among others):
  1. infinite does not imply unbounded
  2. finite does not imply bounded
 

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