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Photon Energy

Beacause fields have an amplitude and direction.
Displacement is not the only thing that can have an amplitude .
Displacement is not the only thing that can have a direction.

This is what confuses me, how\why is direction used if it doesn't relate to 'going somewhere'?
 
Ok, can you define such a “thought experiment”, as Zig has noted actual experiments have failed to show any rest mass for the photon (within the limits of those experimets)

Just picture a wave of light as many individual photons oscillating perpendicular to the direction of travel. All photon interactions can now be considered collisions between objects.

The wave is a quantum wave function relating to the complex probability amplitude of finding the electron in some particular state.

The best description we have for how an electron travels is the path integral.

Why can’t the state be related to a displacement? Again another pixie question I guess.

Well, as the Neutrino oscillations in flavor are currently modeled as oscillations of varing mass and flavor states, the momentum would be maintained by those combined states, if I’m getting it correctly.

So what changes when a Neutrino changes state?
 
It is not a thought experiment just the idea of photons being a "very small mass that travels in a wave like manner where all the waves have an equal peak-to-peak amplitude".

Double-slit experiment (in fact any slit experiment): How do photon "waves" fit through slits smaller then their amplitude?

Individual photons can travel through any slit as long as it is bigger than they are of course. Picture it like water only replace water molecules with photons, when a wave of photons travels through a slit the consequent wave will be changed.

What about radio waves and their large wavelength (and so presumably amplitude of mass oscillation). How do they get detected by aerials that are much smaller?
Especially consider the extremely low frequency radio waves with wavelengths of 100,000 km – 10,000 km.

You have misunderstood my fault I expect. Radio waves have the same peak-to-peak amplitude as light waves. The difference between light waves and radio waves is that the individual photons for light are oscillating faster hence more energy and shorter wavelengths.

How about my predictions?
 
If it is approximately correct it must be linked somehow surely or is it just a coincidence?

It's not a coincidence at all - it all follows from one principle. Lorentz invariance implies that [latex]$E^2 = m^2c^4 + p^2 c^2$[/latex], and that [latex]$p = mv/\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}$[/latex]. For a photon, m=0 and you get E = p*c. For a massive particle moving slowly you get E = m*c^2 + p^2/(2m), and p=m*v. For a fast moving massive particle you can see that E is again close to p*c.
 
This is what confuses me, how\why is direction used if it doesn't relate to 'going somewhere'?

Then this is the heart of your confusion. I'm not sure if my explanation will fix that for you, but it's what you'll need to figure out a way to understand. The direction of an electric field tells you which direction a charge would be pushed if it was at that point. But the field exists at that point even if there's no charge there (which there isn't in a vacuum), and even if there is a charge there, if can be moving in a different direction than it's being pushed (for example, a car can be moving forward even while it's being pushed backwards, which is what happens when you're braking).
 
It's not a coincidence at all - it all follows from one principle. Lorentz invariance implies that [latex]$E^2 = m^2c^4 + p^2 c^2$[/latex], and that [latex]$p = mv/\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}$[/latex]. For a photon, m=0 and you get E = p*c. For a massive particle moving slowly you get E = m*c^2 + p^2/(2m), and p=m*v. For a fast moving massive particle you can see that E is again close to p*c.

Why does only one equation relate to a photon? What I mean is why is it only E = p * c and not:

[latex]$p = mv/\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}$[/latex]

putting the numbers in for a photon we get:

p = 0 / 0

If you've answered this already and I have missed it my apologies.
 
Then this is the heart of your confusion. I'm not sure if my explanation will fix that for you, but it's what you'll need to figure out a way to understand. The direction of an electric field tells you which direction a charge would be pushed if it was at that point. But the field exists at that point even if there's no charge there (which there isn't in a vacuum), and even if there is a charge there, if can be moving in a different direction than it's being pushed (for example, a car can be moving forward even while it's being pushed backwards, which is what happens when you're braking).

OK so it is a property of a field at a certain point that defines what would happen if a charge was put there is that it? We also have to take into account the charge's properties obviously.

How do we know a field exists in a vacuum without 'seeing' what it does to a charge?
 
Why does only one equation relate to a photon? What I mean is why is it only E = p * c and not:

latex.php


putting the numbers in for a photon we get:

p = 0 / 0

If you've answered this already and I have missed it my apologies.
The m=0 really refers to the first equation not the second equation (which is the momentum for a massive particle, not a massless particle).
 
Why does only one equation relate to a photon? What I mean is why is it only E = p * c and not:

[latex]$p = mv/\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}$[/latex]

That equation applies to the photon in a sense. Consider a particle with mass m and speed v. Now imagine you could reduce its mass while increasing its velocity in such a way that p remains constant. As you do that, you'll find that E gets closer and closer to p*c. You can think of massless particles like the photon as the limit that m->0 of that process.
 
Individual photons can travel through any slit as long as it is bigger than they are of course. Picture it like water only replace water molecules with photons, when a wave of photons travels through a slit the consequent wave will be changed.



You have misunderstood my fault I expect. Radio waves have the same peak-to-peak amplitude as light waves. The difference between light waves and radio waves is that the individual photons for light are oscillating faster hence more energy and shorter wavelengths.

How about my predictions?
What observation that photons have no mass? We have observed a limit but that is all.

Here are a couple:

We wouldn't be able to predict exactly where a photon is due to the oscillation until we observed it.
The equations for energy of a photon would include a constant related to the amplitude.

As both of these phenomena are related to the amplitude it should be the same constant that defines both the Uncertainty and the Energy. Planck’s constant.
Can you give us the mathematics behind these predictions so that we can check them?

The first is exactly what we observe and predict using existsing theory.
The second is not observed (the energy of a photon matches the existing theory) but you need to define how amplitude is going to be measured.

The OT has "Picture the photon as a particle with a very small mass that travels in a wave like manner where all the waves have an equal peak-to-peak amplitude".
What is waving and in what? This sounds like aether theory.

The nice thing about electromagnetic waves is that they do not need a medium to wave in.
 
OK so it is a property of a field at a certain point that defines what would happen if a charge was put there is that it?

Yes.

We also have to take into account the charge's properties obviously.

Why? For a given field, we would need to know the charge in order to calculate the force acting on it, but if we're only interested in the field itself, then the details of our hypothetical test charge are irrelevant. Even if we're doing an actual measurement, we should be able to measure the same field (and get the same result) using different test charges.

How do we know a field exists in a vacuum without 'seeing' what it does to a charge?

This is essentially the same question of whether or not the fields are real at all. Suppose we've got a source charge, and we probe its field by seeing what it does to some small test charge. By moving the test charge around, we map out a field. Can you accept that the field from the source charge will remain even if we remove the test charge? If you can, then that's basically your answer: by doing exactly that, we can deduce the equations we need to predict magnetic and electric fields, we can test them with test charges, and if all our tests work out (and they do), then we assume that they are correct even when we're not doing measurements. If you cannot accept that the field remains when the test charge is gone, well, we've hit an impasse.
 
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martu: A problem with your picture - it assumes that photons just wander around in space. Photons are also created, e.g. by the transition of electrons between energy levels in an atom. But Special Relativity states that it takes an infinite amount of energy to get a massive particle to the speed of light. So your pictured photons cannot be travelling at the speed of light. Thus your picture is wrong.
 
The m=0 really refers to the first equation not the second equation (which is the momentum for a massive particle, not a massless particle).

Why? Why can we use the first equation for the photon but not the second?
 
Can you give us the mathematics behind these predictions so that we can check them?

The first is exactly what we observe and predict using existsing theory.
The second is not observed (the energy of a photon matches the existing theory) but you need to define how amplitude is going to be measured.

It is an interpretation of what we see currently, all the existing maths works with it. What if the photon amplitude was less than the Planck Length? I know, what ifs...

The OT has "Picture the photon as a particle with a very small mass that travels in a wave like manner where all the waves have an equal peak-to-peak amplitude".
What is waving and in what? This sounds like aether theory.

The nice thing about electromagnetic waves is that they do not need a medium to wave in.

Yes I know no medium is required for this. I’ll try an analogy though that might make matters worse…

Imagine a flow of water from one place to another. Now zoom in and picture an individual water molecule in that flow. Now restrict each molecule so that it travels in a straight line in the direction of flow with a small oscillation perpendicular to the direction of travel.
Now consider that water molecule to be a photon and the flow to be a beam of light. The more intense the beam of light the more photons in the flow. The more energy an individual photon has the faster it is oscillating.
 
It is an interpretation of what we see currently, all the existing maths works with it. What if the photon amplitude was less than the Planck Length? I know, what ifs...



Yes I know no medium is required for this. I’ll try an analogy though that might make matters worse…

Imagine a flow of water from one place to another. Now zoom in and picture an individual water molecule in that flow. Now restrict each molecule so that it travels in a straight line in the direction of flow with a small oscillation perpendicular to the direction of travel.
Now consider that water molecule to be a photon and the flow to be a beam of light. The more intense the beam of light the more photons in the flow. The more energy an individual photon has the faster it is oscillating.
Your anology has the water as the medium.

There is no medium needed for an electromagnetic wave (which does not have mass).
There is a meduim neded for your picture of a photon "that travels in a wave like manner" (and infinite energy needed to get it up to the speed of light)
 
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Just picture a wave of light as many individual photons oscillating perpendicular to the direction of travel. All photon interactions can now be considered collisions between objects.

It would need something to contain that oscillation. In water surface waves it is gravity that brings the water molecules into the trough of the wave and higher pressure in the water that drives the crest up. No such mechanism for positional oscillation exists for photons. Even sound waves which are longitudinal result from an increase and decrease in pressure (also contained by gravity) along the direction of travel, were you to graph the changes in pressure you would get a sine wave representing the pressure variations yet the air does not move up and down like waves on the surface of water but instead move back and forth. Both sound and water waves represent pressure oscillation in a media (water or air), electromagnetic waves were once thought to be similar oscillations in the a ‘luminiferous aether’ but experimentation has demonstrated that this is not the case

Why can’t the state be related to a displacement? Again another pixie question I guess.

It is related to position (or the probability of detecting an electron at some position) but not a displacement like waves on water or even longitudinal wave like sound.


So what changes when a Neutrino changes state?

It is not so much that the Neutrino changes state, but that the traveling neutrino is a superposition of mass and flavor states, it is the probability of which flavor you will most likely detect at any give time and location that changes or oscillates.
 
Your anology has the water as the medium.

There is no medium needed for an electromagnetic wave (which does not have mass).
There is a meduim neded for your picture of a photon "that travels in a wave like manner" (and infinite energy needed to get it up to the speed of light)

OK then photons arte the medium, I thought you meant a medium is required for photons to travel through. A beam of light in a vacuum is a stream of photons travelling as described, what characteristic of light can’t be explained this way?

Which equation are you using for the infinite energy consequence?
 

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