I don't see how this follows. If you agree that rights are a legal construct and you agree that the DoI is not a legal document then how can you argue that rights come from the DoI? How can something that is purely a matter of legal standing, rights, flow from a document with no legal standing at all?
Can't be from DoI, it's not a legal document, remember?
I am not talking about the legality. I am talking about where the rights are coming from.