Skeptical Greg
Agave Wine Connoisseur
krkey said:
Tell me again, what is the difference between Wells and Kent Hovind.
Are you saying the difference between Wells and Kent Hovind is what you wish to debate?
krkey said:
Tell me again, what is the difference between Wells and Kent Hovind.
krkey said:Hate to break it to you about Hemer. He is a secular classical historian and was never a church man.
Originally posted by krkey
Wells ε German → Wells ε Ignored
pgwenthold said:
The only thing we have that says the Wizard of Oz is fiction is that everyone agrees that it is fiction. This is what distinguishes the WoO from the Bible.
I am quite satisfied with the view of many scholars on the Bible that it is a composition of Jewish Oral traditions and Arian Christian writings.I am quite satisfied with the view of many scholars on the Koran that it is a composition of Jewish Oral traditions, Arian Christian writings and some writings of Mohammed.
I assume this comment is in response to my using the term "Arian christian" in relation to the Bible. Fair enough! The dangers of making a fast post, I guess. The point I was attempting to make was in relation to the *method* in which the two books (Bible and Quran) have been assembled. It seemed to me that you were implying the Quran's *method of construction* was somehow different/flawed compared to the Bible. My quick "cut and paste" was aimed at demonstrating a similar comment was applicable to the Bible. But yes, the word "Arian" should be removed from my Bible comment. Arian concepts relating to the (potential)divinity of humans didn't make it into the Bible. I'd be intertested to see why you think some of the core Arian theological concepts are inherent in Islam?Then it is evident you have never, ever read a single New Testament Scholar in your entire life
I was referring to the Bible as a whole, but even so I guess this comment is supposed to relate to the Gospels?The New Testament is most certainly NOT a collection of jewish oral traditions.
Ah...a different take on the event. What is the (claimed) source for this "different take" again?Because they come from the seventh century AD, and the far older documents( read book above) which have a different take on the event...
So :... were written within 20-40 years during a time period if they were not true they most certainly would have been rebuted by hostile witnesses, say the Pharisees or Sadduccees
Excuse me? You don't know how many Muslim scholars think Jesus was not resurrected? One? More than one? All? Why wouldn't you know? If you haven't studied their conclusions and their reasons, how can you dismiss them?To this question I do not have a clue,
So you believe there *are* grounds for grading the two sources - dates, and time elapsed between event and writing.Because historians have far better documents to deal with, not in the least the New Testament, Josephus, Suetinious, Pliny and Tacticus.
Who should historians pick, documents from the 1st and 2nd century, or documents from the 7th century that claim to expand on the earlier doument, and which claim to be from the the same source? Seems to me historians need to examine *both*, unless and until the second documents claims can be shown to be false. Can you demonstrate that the Quran's claims to be "from God" and "about the real Jesus" to be false?Who should historians pick, document from the 1st and 2nd century or the 7th century
Of course if you were attempting to appeal to the downtrodden, it wouldn't be so odd.krkey said:
a.) the use of women witnesses in a first century Judean setting. This is the equivalent of using blacks as witnesses in the 1930 southern USA
I suppose the fact that Unitarianism seems a better fit with the overall text of the gospels rather than the Trinity isn't really relevant to this conversation? I'm interested in the way you ascribe the "Jesus will come again, Judge the earth etc" to the Arian view, and therefore imply it's not part of the orthodox view.Arian element that can clearly been seen in the Qu'ran.
a.) Uniterianism, Jesus is lesser then God
b.) Jesus will come again, Judge the earth etc
Hmmm...I guess thre's no harm try to sneak a quick "assume the conclusion" into the conversation. The issue is *why* are the older ones better. You give two reasons - because they are "closer to the event" and because they are "better". I'll concede the first, but the second is just plain sneaky of you! Again, I'd ask why would the 7th century writings be dismissed, given that they *claim* to be from the same source (god) as the 1st century writings, and that they *claim* to expand and correct the originals. Can you address these claims?Why not use the seventh century ones. The older ones are far better and closer to the event at hand