Beelzebuddy
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Jun 10, 2010
- Messages
- 10,594
Okay, new rule: when you reply to one of my posts with these ridiculous walls of text, I'm only going to reply to the part up to double my word count in the post you're replying to. I'll give you a pass this time, but going forward I don't think it's asking too much for you to be no more than twice as verbose as I am.
"Physicalist," my ass.
Because the Ps are the Ns. Or more accurately, the Ns are the Ps, and the Ps are illusory. They do not produce the Ps, they do not perform the Ps, they are the Ps. I expect you'll find more than a tight correlation, but a perfect one, because they are one and the same. That is the answer to why. You just don't like it because it makes you less special.There's no magic bean anywhere. Nobody here believes in any magic bean. Can you please, at last, stop with that nonsense? Thank you.
Yes, different wavelengths of light trigger different sorts of neural reactions which result in the experience of different colors.
But you still have not answered -- nor, apparently, understood -- the question.
There is, at present, no physics, no calculus, no theory of any kind which explains why the specific colors are what they are.
If we shine a light in a person's eye (observer A) and have another person (observer B) observing the first person's brain activity, we have two sets of observations.
Observer B can see how the light triggers neural activity. And we have physical theories to account for that. We also have physical theories to account for any response such as squinting or reflexive muscle movement.
That's no problem.
But when we do this repeatedly, and with different wavelengths of light, we end up with 2 sets of observations which end up being very tightly correlated.
Let's say we try it with 6 different wavelengths, W-1 through W-6.
Observer B records that the brain has neural responses which vary regularly, let's call them N-1 through N-6. These are related in many ways -- all going thru the visual cortex, for example, but they're not identical, and their variance is perfectly regular.
And explaining this correspondence is no problem, given our current understanding of physics, chemistry, and biology. We know why N-1 is always the response to W-1, and N-2 is always the response to W-2, and so forth.
The problem to be solved, however, occurs when we try to explain the observations of observer B with the observations of observer A.
When observer B records that the brain is performing N-1 through N-6, observer A consistently reports an entirely different set of observations of the resulting phenomenology, P-1 to P-6, which in this case happen to consist of colors.
The correspondence is just as tight and consistent as with the W-to-N observations.
But unlike the W-to-N observations we have no theory to explain why P-1 to P-6 are arranged in that pattern, and not some other pattern.
We know that they are, but we can't explain why.
For that matter, we can't explain why it's that particular set at all. Why is it not instead P-47 through P-52, which could be colors or sounds or smells or any other bits of the phenomenological palette?
We can't find an explanation in the Ws, clearly, because that's just backing up the correspondence a step further, which doesn't help.
Nobody studying the brain believes that this correspondence is the result of magic (which is why your "magic bean" nonsense is just silly).
It's simply two sets of observations which are tightly correlated and for which we currently have no theory, or even the basis of a theory, to explain the correlation.
And it's not enough to say, "Well, it just is". We know it just is, but why?
It's like when Newton discovered that gravity decreases in proportion with the square of the distance between two objects. After Newton, we could say, "That's just what gravity is, it's an attractive force that weakens in proportion with the square of the distance."
But that observation doesn't explain why that value should be what it is, and not some other value, such as the raw distance, or the cube of the distance.
So far, our Einstein of consciousness has not appeared to explain why N-1 is correlated with P-1, and not P-24, or for that matter no P at all!
In everyday terms, we don't understand why a normal human brain sees a green light on the bottom of a stoplight and a red light on top, and not the other way around.
We know that it is the case.
The question is why.
"Physicalist," my ass.
"Critical period." Look it up, maybe it will help you understand why the paper was a novel result.Seriously, we cannot have a rational adult conversation if you continue with this "magic bean" nonsense. I know you think you're giving a witty dismissal to the physicalist position with that little bon mot, but you're simply displaying the fact that you don't understand it.
The paper does not in any way contradict what I'm saying.
Of course distinction among wavelengths in the retina is a necessary precursor to differential color experience downstream.
If the color blindness is caused by a retinal fault, then repairing that fault will repair the condition.
This does not in any way contradict the physicalist position. In fact, it's utterly trivial.
You are simply failing to understand the difference between what's necessary and what's sufficient.
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