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On Consciousness

Is consciousness physical or metaphysical?


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Reflecting more soberly (;)), that's equivocating 'bald'. It's the negation in 'irrevocable' that makes it absolute; the analogous question would be "does a man with three hairs on his head have a hairless head?", to which the answer is obviously 'No'.
I appreciate that you may find their use of "irrevocable" as not being consistent with your own take on how that word should be used. However, it's not something that I feel concerned enough about to debate to the nth degree. The line about the bald man was something that I used mainly because it was "fresh" in my memory after hearing it for the first time very recently, I think in the video I linked to earlier (or perhaps the "Phantoms in the Brain" documentaries on youtube that I watched before that after someone else provided a link to those - very interesting and thought provoking also).

Bottom line for me is that I found Ramachandran and Hewitt's "Three Laws of Qualia" paper pretty coherent - but I'm sure that even they would be happy to concede it's not meant to be the final word, but rather an honest attempt to provide a possible explanation (and still incomplete) of what could be going on, whilst also being consistent with observations from people with various brain disorders and lesions, etc.

If you wanted to be consistent about attacking vague use of language (and it's pretty hard not to be vague because there really aren't many words in our language that don't have "shades of meaning") then I really think "Self Referential Information Processing" is so vague as to be almost meaningless. Of course, it may not seem that way inside Pixy's mind, but I note that 18 months ago Rocketdodger happily accepted that fragment of C++ code posted earlier as a working implementation of SRIP, while more recently Pixy said it didn't do anything and only had self reference, but then didn't answer my question about where the self reference was unambiguously evident once it was "compiled" into one possible "machine language".

What is "information"? How should it "reference itself"? How does the brain encode information? Etc., Etc.

I recall (vaguely, from an earlier thread where I think I asked you specifically) that you personally do not necessarily subscribe to the "SRIP hypothesis", at least not to the extent that Pixy appears willing to defend it, so I'm not try to suggest that you do. But an even handed approach might suggest you should dig further into what "SRIP" is really meant to represent if indeed you also want to argue about the particular use of "irrevocable" in that paper.

Mostly it does not seem to me that Pixy is truly interested in some kind of inclusive discussion about exactly what "SRIP" is meant to mean (in detail) but in fact is more interested in being provocative, and perhaps just winning points for debating style or whatever words best describe that aspect of some "discussions" on these forums.

Of course it's easy to get sucked into a rigid stance (me too) where we want to defend one position or another "to the death" rather than really try to be open to understanding other views, but when it boils down to it the aspect of "consciousness" that I am really puzzled by is the subjective, conscious awareness, feelings that I KNOW I personally experience, and why those kinds of experiences should happen for only some parts of what goes on in my head but not for all. "SRIP" hasn't helped me at all in that respect. Of course all the rest of what is going on is also very interesting (and probably also a key part of the puzzle) but that doesn't leave me scratching my head as much. I've written quite a lot of code in my life and also have some formal education in computing theory, and so don't have a problem with the basic idea that the brain has some (or even "many") processes that are essentially doing the same kind of thing as a conventional man made computing system can do. But none of that seems to provide any kind of real explanation (that I personally can "grok") for my own first person subjective experiences.

Perhaps it really is just some kind of "emergent property" but I find that explanation very unsatisfying - in fact not really an "explanation" at all, but more like a placeholder for "we'll figure this out later". I'd like to be able to understand it at a level where we could say (with precision and certainty) exactly what was needed to reproduce it in another system.

After watching the "Phantoms in the Brain" clips on youtube I did find myself idly speculating about the possibility that we all have a variety of less obvious brain damage/lesions or even just "differences" such that for some the idea of "qualia" simply makes no sense (or little sense) perhaps because they truly do not have the same kind of "experience" that I do. In other words, perhaps there really are degrees of zombieness. If true, we'll be arguing about this until hell freezes over and still not agreeing with each other!
 
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David, you are right. Covering the right eye does not eliminate visual signals to the left primary visual cortex, due to the hemidecussation at the optical chiasma.

It's not the left or right eye. It's the left or right visual field -- if both foveas are fixated front and center, then aside from overlap, the left half of the visual field is only seen by the right brain, and the right half only by the left brain. Without the corpus callosum, the left and right brains are conscious of different, and possibly clashing, visual information.

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I really think there's lots of evidence a split brain has two consciousnesses and little it maintains only one. I've found the left and right can be conscious of different smells from different nostrils. I'm still checking about left/right ear connections to right/left hemispheres.

6736501729ae49b9e.gif
 
I really think there's lots of evidence a split brain has two consciousnesses and little it maintains only one. I've found the left and right can be conscious of different smells from different nostrils. I'm still checking about left/right ear connections to right/left hemispheres.
There are also the very interesting cases of conjoined twins, two heads/brains but some shared sensory input for other parts of the body, or as in another documentary I saw recently a case of two young girls joined at the head and with an apparent degree of connection between their two brains (or is it just one "shared brain" once there is at least one fibre linking the two).

From there we could start speculating about physically distinct brains (yours and mine say) which still communicate often enough and over a long enough period to allow some kind of "shared experience". In this case, we might argue that the communication is only at the higher levels and so there cannot really be a shared "consciousness" as such, but what if there's also a lot of physical "closeness", mutual touching (generating some degree of correlated sensory input), etc., and similar sensory input from essentially being in the same physical space/environment?
 
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There are also the very interesting cases of conjoined twins, two heads/brains but some shared sensory input for other parts of the body, or as in another documentary I saw recently a case of two young girls joined at the head and with an apparent degree of connection between their two brains (or is it just one "shared brain" once there is at least one fibre linking the two).

Yea, I was thinking about those cases in the context of split brains. Apparently, conjoined twins without neuronal connections can get feelings from each other. I know it's fiction, but in Todd Browning's FREAKS he shows one twin kissing while the other feels the pleasure. (oh look the scene is on youtube.)

Different hemispheres, lacking the high bandwidth synchronization of the corpus callosum, would have different flavors of consciousness because of lateralization, but I don't see any reason they'd retain the same unified consciousness of a normal brain. The right brain is mute, but still intelligent and independent in split brain patients, in spite of residual crosstalk.

Here's a bit about one case of shared-brain conjoined twins, apparently with separate consciousness but visual (and other) crosstalk:

 
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I'm still checking about left/right ear connections to right/left hemispheres.

This is helpful:

Auditory Processing in Split Brain Patients

the cochlear nerves intersect in a part of the brain stem called the inferior colliculus. This must be how the whole brain receives auditory signals from each ear. For example, the right hemisphere doesn’t receive information from only the right ear. From the inferior colliculus, the signal proceeds to the temporal lobes. It must be when the brain tries to recognize and identify the sound that the two temporal lobes try to message each other but are unable to because of the severed corpus callosum.
 
Mostly it does not seem to me that Pixy is truly interested in some kind of inclusive discussion about exactly what "SRIP" is meant to mean (in detail)
I've laid it out, in detail. I've pointed people to Godel, Escher, Bach, which lays it out in six hundred pages of detail. What exactly do you want?

but in fact is more interested in being provocative, and perhaps just winning points for debating style or whatever words best describe that aspect of some "discussions" on these forums.
I'm trying to provoke people into providing coherent arguments instead of logical fallacies. Sometimes it works.
 
Here's a bit about one case of shared-brain conjoined twins, apparently with separate consciousness but visual (and other) crosstalk:

Yep - that's one of the cases I was referring to. The other case was an older set of female conjoined twins (in the USA, about 16 or 17 years of age in the documentary I saw) with essentially one torso, separate (unjoined) heads, and separate spines down to some point around mid torso (or perhaps a little lower) where they merged into one. Each of the girls controlled her side of the body but they could both detect a touch around the midline of the torso. They were quite mobile and were in the process of obtaining their driving license in the documentary, with each looking after roughly her half of the car controls...

ETA: Abby and Brittany Hensel

Would be interesting to know how their "body maps" in the brain differed, but I recall from the full documentary that the girls and/or their parents were not interested in allowing them to become lab rats.
 
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It's not the left or right eye. It's the left or right visual field -- if both foveas are fixated front and center, then aside from overlap, the left half of the visual field is only seen by the right brain, and the right half only by the left brain. Without the corpus callosum, the left and right brains are conscious of different, and possibly clashing, visual information.

That is what I said, except for the second line.

The demonstration of the second line would take some exhaustive research, in term of establishing what information crosses over in the mid brain and brain stem.

Why are people ignoring that? The two hemispheres of the upper cortex are separated. The mid brain and lower are not, so the blatant assumption that all information is passed through the corpus callosum needs to be investigated, it may be reasonable as an idea, it may not.
 
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Ok then you explain that phenomenon.

Which specific case and which specific phenomena?

:)

My sole point is that there are some large unsupported assertions going on, if people were to use neutral language and show some caution, I would not have a point. There is also the need in the cases of split brain study to look at:

-the differential effects of verbal expression vs. associative thinking
-the specific of brain damage and trauma in each patient
-the specific definition of which behaviors of consciousness are effected
 
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That is what I said, except for the second line.

The demonstration of the second line would take some exhaustive research, in term of establishing what information crosses over in the mid brain and brain stem.

Why are people ignoring that? The two hemispheres of the upper cortex are separated. The mid brain and lower are not, so the blatant assumption that all information is passed through the corpus callosum needs to be investigated, it may be reasonable as an idea, it may not.

I'm fine with the idea that some information is transferred between the hemispheres in parts of the brain other than the corpus callosum, but it really looks like the preponderance of the evidence I've been aware of for many many years indicates there is a separate consciousness in each half, though they are pretty good at keeping in sync much of the time, mostly because the two visual fields and two ears usually pick up the same information, and they communicate with hand movements and speech.

It makes sense that there would be two separate consciousness (souls, if you will) in split brain patients, and there's lots of evidence for it.

Are you arguing that split brain patients retain a single unified consciousness? I'd really like to see evidence for it. Until I see some, I'll consider it an extraordinary claim.
 
I appreciate that you may find their use of "irrevocable" as not being consistent with your own take on how that word should be used.
My point is that it is simply incorrect. You can't have degrees of hairlessness, irrevocability, impossibility, or uniqueness (although the hyperbolic 'very unique' does seem to have caught on).

However, it's not something that I feel concerned enough about to debate to the nth degree.
Likewise.

The line about the bald man was something that I used mainly because it was "fresh" in my memory after hearing it for the first time very recently, I think in the video I linked to earlier (or perhaps the "Phantoms in the Brain" documentaries on youtube that I watched before that after someone else provided a link to those - very interesting and thought provoking also).
I expect you remember it because it is mentioned in the article we are discussing!

Bottom line for me is that I found Ramachandran and Hewitt's "Three Laws of Qualia" paper pretty coherent - but I'm sure that even they would be happy to concede it's not meant to be the final word, but rather an honest attempt to provide a possible explanation (and still incomplete) of what could be going on, whilst also being consistent with observations from people with various brain disorders and lesions, etc.
I agree that they make some very good points, and it's a pity they were careless presenting them.

If you wanted to be consistent about attacking vague use of language (and it's pretty hard not to be vague because there really aren't many words in our language that don't have "shades of meaning") then I really think "Self Referential Information Processing" is so vague as to be almost meaningless.
Pixy has explained what he means by it more than once, but if you missed it, I'm sure he'll give you a link. Personally, as a software developer, I feel quite comfortable with the meaning of 'information processing' and 'self-reference'.

What is "information"? How should it "reference itself"?
Information. The self-referencing refers to the process, i.e. the process takes information about aspects of its own state and/or performance as input.

But an even handed approach might suggest you should dig further into what "SRIP" is really meant to represent if indeed you also want to argue about the particular use of "irrevocable" in that paper.
I don't see the two having any particular relationship; I think I understand what SRIP means, and I don't think 'irrevocable' has degrees.

Mostly it does not seem to me that Pixy is truly interested in some kind of inclusive discussion about exactly what "SRIP" is meant to mean (in detail) but in fact is more interested in being provocative, and perhaps just winning points for debating style or whatever words best describe that aspect of some "discussions" on these forums.
You'll have to ask Pixy. My view is that Pixy's use of SRIP as sufficient for consciousness is provocative, and necessarily so, given the absence of other coherent definitions, descriptions, or suggestions in the thread; it's a starting point, albeit low-level. I find it disappointing that the response has been so negative rather than attempting to progress the discussion.

I am really puzzled by is the subjective, conscious awareness, feelings that I KNOW I personally experience, and why those kinds of experiences should happen for only some parts of what goes on in my head but not for all. "SRIP" hasn't helped me at all in that respect.
I see SRIP as a fundamental enabler of consciousness; it's not going to tell you anything specific about human personal subjective conscious experience, any more than the transition rules of Conway's Game of Life will tell you how a circuit made of glider logic gates will function.

... But none of that seems to provide any kind of real explanation (that I personally can "grok") for my own first person subjective experiences.
Subjective experience is what it is like when you are what is doing the processing, and however much we elucidate the mechanisms and causality behind it, ISTM personal experience is not going to get any less subjective.

I'd like to be able to understand it at a level where we could say (with precision and certainty) exactly what was needed to reproduce it in another system.
Hopefully the Blue Brain Project is taking us in that direction.

I did find myself idly speculating about the possibility that we all have a variety of less obvious brain damage/lesions or even just "differences" such that for some the idea of "qualia" simply makes no sense (or little sense) perhaps because they truly do not have the same kind of "experience" that I do. In other words, perhaps there really are degrees of zombieness.
Apart from specific minor sensory deficits in the general population (e.g. colour blindness), I don't see any reason to suspect that.
 
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I'm fine with the idea that some information is transferred between the hemispheres in parts of the brain other than the corpus callosum, but it really looks like the preponderance of the evidence I've been aware of for many many years indicates there is a separate consciousness in each half, though they are pretty good at keeping in sync much of the time, mostly because the two visual fields and two ears usually pick up the same information, and they communicate with hand movements and speech.

It makes sense that there would be two separate consciousness (souls, if you will) in split brain patients, and there's lots of evidence for it.

Are you arguing that split brain patients retain a single unified consciousness? I'd really like to see evidence for it. Until I see some, I'll consider it an extraordinary claim.

And without a definition of the behaviors you are applying to consciousness and then rigorous study it would be hard to say under what definition you are saying that there are two consciousnesses.

Again I am urging neutral statements and avoiding generalization.

:)

If you want to put words in my mouth that is your issue.
 
Consciousness produces the brain, the brain does not produce consciousness.

Disprove that statement someone, if you would be so kind.
 
Consciousness produces the brain, the brain does not produce consciousness.

Disprove that statement someone, if you would be so kind.

Given what we know about the brain, that would seem to be an extraordinary claim with no evidence to support it, so the burden of proof is on you.

E.g., prove there's no invisible pink unicorn in my garage. You can't? I win!
 
And without a definition of the behaviors you are applying to consciousness and then rigorous study it would be hard to say under what definition you are saying that there are two consciousnesses.

Again I am urging neutral statements and avoiding generalization.

:)

If you want to put words in my mouth that is your issue.

I didn't mean to put words in your mouth. Since you seem to object to any suggestion that there are two consciousnesses in a split brain patient, I naturally infer you believe there's only one.

Did you really look at the aroma experiment graphic I posted? (below)

The right brain smells a rose through the right nostril and the left hand (controlled by the right brain) picks up a rose on the table. At the same time, the left brain does not smell the rose because the left nostril is blocked (unlike other senses, nasal signals do not cross on their way to the brain) and the left brain denies verbally that a rose was smelled.

So, if the right brain is conscious of the rose smell, and the left brain is unconscious of it, this manifests the separate consciousnesses of the split halves. IOW each side is unconscious of what the other is conscious of.

(results are similar with sight, hearing, and touch experiments)

By any definition I've ever heard, this indicates two separate consciousnesses.

By what definition of consciousness could one reach a different conclusion?

6736501729ae49b9e.gif
 
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Given what we know about the brain, that would seem to be an extraordinary claim with no evidence to support it, so the burden of proof is on you.

E.g., prove there's no invisible pink unicorn in my garage. You can't? I win!


Non sequitur.

Can you answer my question instead this time please?
 
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