Jack by the hedge
Safely Ignored
The proof of the pudding is in the eating!
Just so. In other words, judge it by its results. And people do like a bit of evidence around here so feel free to present any that you think is compelling.
The proof of the pudding is in the eating!
There is no such thing as telepathy.
The results are rather surprising, however. In the first test, the target number (chosen by a random number generator) was a 4, and only one person mentioned a number in his answer, he said enigmatically:
"During my walk to the grocery store this morning, I saw four dogs".
The target number for the second test turned out to be a 8, and another member said, enigmatically also:
"The Solar System has 8 planets"
(and this second forum member was (also) the only one who mentioned a number among all members who responded to the second test).
Unfortunately, nobody ever mentioned a number any longer (although there were some comments) in later 1-10 tests done on that forum.
Now, let's say that you feel not everybody (understatement) seems to be very eager, happy and impatient to recognize your exceptional telepathy, even though it is (as far as we know) not a (good) quality, just a peculiarity, a special feature.
My question now is: Would you be entitled to state that your experiments have generated (positive) evidence for your assumed "telepathy"? (or not). I invite you to think a little before answering (the answer may not be that simple).
Michel,
any "test" you conduct is worthless unless your proposition can be falsified. You know this, don't you? Unless you can say afterwards "Yep, that proved nothing at all" then it is a waste of time and effort. The test should also should be designed and conducted by someone else neutral, not by you. They should be testing your claimed abilities, not you. So, your new test should include 3 people: the tester, you, and the person you are "communicating" with, and it shouldn't be you writing up the conclusion, but this neutral tester.
That tester, of course, would have to satisfy themselves that there was no other way of information passing between you and your "communication partner" other than via your claimed telepathy.
Do all that, produce the results, and then a serious conversation here can begin. Until then, the default position is that telepathy doesn't exist, and your mental health problems are the reason for you thinking that it does.
Please answer the question Aepervius, and avoid "Go see a doctor" answers.
...So while relating to the psychic you deliberately give information MENTALLY ONLY. Then you will see what they have to say and be astonished.
Just so. In other words, judge it by its results. And people do like a bit of evidence around here so feel free to present any that you think is compelling.
I guess you're familiar with the concept of 'cold reading'? How does your proposed experiment control for information you might unwittingly give a cold reader that isn't "mentally only"?
Since people regularly go away impressed when a psychic seemed to know about their real life, why should we be surprised if they also went away impressed that the psychic also seemed to know about a fictional life they thought up?
Regarding the problem of being recognised when going back to the same psychic with a different life story, do you think a false beard and glasses would be enough to fool a psychic or would we have to constantly think about being a different person to put them off the scent?
corrected to:I answered the question indirectly and it is a negative : no you are not entitled to state that your experiments have generated (positive) evidence, you are missing p values, null hypothesis , e.g.comapringto normal conversation and i explained you why.
And the doctor thing is very serious. I am not trying to insult you.
Are you sure you cannot calculate (easily) a p-value from these two data points, Aepervius? How about p = (1/10)*(1/10) = 0.01 for example? Wouldn't that be acceptable, if one considers all numbers written in the answers? (one can assume that the person conducting the test has already noted a tendency in the answers to mention the correct target number, but without saying clearly this number is an answer to the test, and is therefore on the lookout for all numbers).I answered the question indirectly and it is a negative : no you are not entitled to state that your experiments have generated (positive) evidence, you are missing p values, null hypothesis , e.g. comparing to normal conversation and i explained you why.
And the doctor thing is very serious. I am not trying to insult you.
(one can assume that the person conducting the test has already noted a tendency in the answers to mention the correct target number, but without saying clearly this number is an answer to the test, and is therefore on the lookout for all numbers).
My question now is: Would you be entitled to state that your experiments have generated (positive) evidence for your assumed "telepathy"? (or not).
I changed the scenario a little (since it is hypothetical, I can always make some minor changes, which in addition may bring the scenario closer to my observed reality).Note that this assumption is incompatible with the scenario you outline in which two, and only two, answers have ever been given that contain a number. So, no, in the scenario you outline you most definitely cannot assume any such tendency.
Dave
"let's assume I am a normal person, would such strange and enigmatic answers have been given?"
Wouldn't that be acceptable, if one considers all numbers written in the answers? (one can assume that the person conducting the test has already noted a tendency in the answers to mention the correct target number, but without saying clearly this number is an answer to the test, and is therefore on the lookout for all numbers).
I changed the scenario a little (since it is hypothetical, I can always make some minor changes, which in addition may bring the scenario closer to my observed reality).
Well, I have found in my telepathy research that people like to tease the investigator a little bit, and that it is better to show a little flexibility. For example, your famous 2013 answer:You're seriously wondering if other human beings say strange and enigmatic things? Have you seen who's running for President?
This is exactly the point where you leave scientific rigor behind. If the researcher is exercising any judgment whatsoever about whether a data point does or doesn't exist, it is no longer a valid test. The only thing it's measuring anymore is the breadth of the researcher's imagination.
You must clearly define exactly what constitutes a positive hit before you begin collecting data and you must not deviate from that definition.
If you ask for a simple number from 1 to 10, "I saw four dogs" is not a valid answer. It's not simply a number from 1 to 10. It's a statement about dogs. You then imagine that a sentence that clearly isn't a direct answer to your test actually is.
It's nothing to be ashamed of. Confirmation bias has taken down far greater people than you or I. That's why any trace of it must be rigorously avoided.
is what I call a "high quality answer" (though you later denied it had any scientific value). The same is true (and perhaps even more so) for Tiktaalik's answer:I am seeing a 4 very clearly. It's almost as though I had written it myself.
But, these are rare; recently, for example, I did a test on Yahoo Answers where the responder answered the letter I, instead of answering the number 1, and I felt a friendly element in his answer. So I felt (and still feel) that this should be considered as evidence, because I resembles 1. It is important to understand that the participants' goal is not necessarily to make the life of the researcher easy. A lot of the evidence seems to be relatively low quality one, and it is important to learn to interpret this kind of evidence, while still hoping of course that "relatively low quality evidence" won't mean "very low quality evidence". When the target is 5, and somebody says unexpectedly "I got up at 5:00 this morning", I don't think we are dealing with very low quality evidence, perhaps more with something like "medium quality evidence", because we understand human psychology. People are not robots, human psychology factors are essential, and have to be included, this is Human Sciences, not Computer Sciences. I believe the human mind has an ability to understand this "proximity factor", qualitative stuff, but it may be very hard to teach to a computer. When you want to transform a human being into a computer, you're not making progress, you're actually moving backwards.4
I know it. I'm absolutely sure. I feel it inside of me ...
The proof of the pudding is in the eating!
corrected to:
Are you sure you cannot calculate (easily) a p-value from these two data points, Aepervius? How about p = (1/10)*(1/10) = 0.01 for example? Wouldn't that be acceptable, if one considers all numbers written in the answers? (one can assume that the person conducting the test has already noted a tendency in the answers to mention the correct target number, but without saying clearly this number is an answer to the test, and is therefore on the lookout for all numbers).
But, Aepervius, while "four" or "4" may naturally and randomly occur in a conversation, the same is true about "one" or "1", about "two" and "2", and so on. I have tried to read you carefully, and I am not sure you got this; that's how you get the rough probability p = 1/10 = 0.1 for the first test, and another p = .1 for the second test, with a joint probability for the two events equal to 0.1*0.1 = 0.01. You must surely understand that "something unusual" happened in the tests I described in the opening post, because there were these two coincidences, first for 4, and then for 8.No, because you are not taking into account the natural occurrence of the words like "four" in a random conversation. Therefore your probability value is valid for a random draw, but not for a correlated/non random functions.
To give you an absurd example this would be like asking art student a random color , and be astonished that the color you chose was mentioned by one of the student.
See what i meant ? You would need to be able to compare without and with broadcasting, but by choosing such an easy and often occuring word, you are artificially adding random "hit".
no. the only way to go would be to have something which a very very low probability be randomly guessed. A 6 digits numbers. A made up word like juzaeropoikule.
Wanna bet youfillwill find out no "broadcasting" occurs in such condition ?
The reason for that is simple : what you think is a broadcast , is with almost certainty not. It is you recognizing hit on random naturally occurs stuff.
I checked how often came the word vier (four in german) in our conversation this midday. It cames up two time. that'sjsutjust random.
basically what you are calculating and correlating is not broadcasting, but the probability of you choosing a random number appearing in a conversation. And that anybody can do even using a dice (a D10 dice AD&D for example) and get the same number of hits as you.
But, Aepervius, while "four" or "4" may naturally and randomly occur in a conversation, the same is true about "one" or "1", about "two" and "2", and so on. I have tried to read you carefully, and I am not sure you got this; that's how you get the rough probability p = 1/10 = 0.1 for the first test, and another p = .1 for the second test, with a joint probability for the two events equal to 0.1*0.1 = 0.01. You must surely understand that "something unusual" happened in the tests I described in the opening post, because there were these two coincidences, first for 4, and then for 8.