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New perspectives on Relativity

lifegazer said:
... Einstein's work relates to the perceived world. Do you understand that? It relates to perceived speeds. It doesn't relate to a real world external to our awareness since we cannot observe such a world!!!!!!!!!

Your assumption. Science makes a reverse assumption - that our perceptions are images/sounds/etc. of a real world external to us. This assumption is verified time and again in the consistancy of our observations of said world, and further by the mortality of our awareness. When one of us dies, what he perceives does not vanish; only his perception of it vanishes.

But, again, this assumes also that people are individual awareness - again confirmed through countless millions of observation of separation of one awareness from another.

All science - including Newtonian - is about the perceived world. But all science assumes that this perception of a world is an accurate model of said world. Can you prove it is not? Of course not.

Our perception of space & time is a variant. Hence the relative differences in the experiences of space & time. Hence the reason why lightspeed is not simply additive.

This statement is unclear. Can you clarify it, preferrably with examples and models? And some clear definitions?

Now, I made it quite clear that in a "real world" full of real objects all separated by definite values of space and definite values of time, that those values would not be subject to subjective negotiation.

No, you haven't. If you had, would we be arguing it? But your statement is, itself, quite false. In a real world of real objects separated by definite values of spacetime, those values would of course be subject to subjective negotiation. But this isn't what 'relativity' was about - not observer bias, but speed in relation to motion and its meaning for time.

Now, the interesting thing is, there is some research that suggests that Einstein's theory may actually be wrong, and that there may be an 'absolute' time - to use lifegazer's fave rave term - and that the speed of light is actually variable after all.

See, in Galilean theory time (and space) were a constant - that is, that there was a background frame of reference that held true. Whereas in Minkowski theory it is light that is a constant, rather than space or time, and that all frames of reference were local and therefore relative. But quantum mechanics seems to be suggesting that Galilean time is more true; certain effects fit the model better if a background time is assumed.

Remember, lg, that Einstein's theory is just that: a theory. In science, that's the next best thing to claiming a fact; but all theories are relative to change, even to total negation. And Einstein's theory also led to the possibility of temporal paradox for superluminal events, which caused him to simply discard the possibility of superluminal effects. On the other hand, Galilean theory allowed for superluminal effects without paradox, and may therefore be more true after all.

Neither is a complete theory; both relied upon future observations and tests. For example, we find it impossible, given Einstein's theory, to accurately determine the precise speed of light - so we don't know for certain if that speed is a constant. And some recent research seems to indicate that light speed may, in fact, slow over time.

Still, let the scientists argue that one.

I'm rambling on - I know you're not interested in reading about the ins and outs of 'establishment physics'. All I'm trying to explain is a) Newton and Einstein might both be wrong; b) observer bias plays a role in any observation, regardless if you are discussing an illusionary 'internal world' or a physical 'external world; and c) your assertions are unfounded and indefensible.

... In other words, "relativity" is something that can only apply to the awareness of the observer. It cannot apply to the real world itself. So, for example, if you accelerated to speeds approaching lightspeed, the space & time in the real world is not really warped or distorted - this is something that happens within your mind.

Meaningless. 'Relativity' relates to apparent distortion of time at near light speeds through physical experiments. Do you know the classic example of relativity?

Take two clocks, A and B, a light emitter, and a mirror (with detectors on each end). Flash a bit of light from A to B and back to A.

In a Rest State Reference Frame, the light will move from A to B and back again at a constant speed. Say these clocks are a fixed distance from each other - distance D. The difference in time measurements between A and B as light travels across D gives us a measurement Ta and Tb. At rest Ta and Tb are equal.

But as we move and approach the speed of light, assuming lightspeed is constant, a beam shining toward B from A will take longer to get to A, and shorter to return to B. Overall, the speed remains the same - light, after all, is a constant - but Ta will be greater than Tb, even though D is technically the same within the frame of reference. Thus, spacetime appears to be a variant at near-luminal speeds if we assume lightspeed to be constant.

Yes, I can hear it already... "The perceived time over the perceived distance..." But either you reject your perceptions - and therefore know nothing at all - or you accept those perceptions as they are and understand the things that affect your world.

So, the perceived speed of light is very much dependent upon the qualitative value of the perceived value of both space & time, within your awareness.
Perceived lightspeed is constant due to the variance of perceived space & perceived time within your awareness.
However, without such observer-dependent variance - in the "real world" of definite space & time - there is no such relative variance and light would move in compliance of Newton's Laws of motion.

It may. Wouldn't that be a kick in the pants, lg?

See it's all about theories. Is time absolute? If it is, light is not a constant and Einstein was wrong on a few things. If it isn't, then light is a constant and time is entirely local in nature. Either way, though, one of the two HAS to be constant/absolute/whatever. Some even theorize that both are that way - that absolute time does exist, as does constant lightspeed.

But there is no need for an observer for there to be variance. Just two light-emitting bodies in motion... say, all the stars in the sky?

The tree doesn't have to fall near a person to make sounds.

Newton's Laws were formulated under the [informal] assumption that the world we observe is real. The reason why he was wrong is because the world we observe (perceive) is not real. However, if there was an external reality, his Laws would apply to everything within it.

Einstein also formulated his theories under the same assumption. And Newton may not have been wrong, entirely - Einstein may have been wrong.

I'm wrong about neither. IF you believe in a real world, then Newton's Laws apply to it - not Einstein's. Einstein's Laws apply to the unreal perceived-world within your awareness.

No, Einstein's Laws apply to a real world in which spacetime is variable and lightspeed is constant. Has nothing to do with perception and awareness.

However, realising that Newton's Laws would equate to a "real world" is a proof of God's existence. Why? Because we see a different world to the one "out there". We see Einstein's world. Therefore, "out there" is not responsible for what is "in here".
That means that whatever it is that you are is the primal cause of the world that It experiences.

Actually, you don't perceive Einstein's world. You perceive Newtonian physics and Galilean models. Einsteinian observations occur at near-light speeds. Tell me the last time you travelled at near light speeds? Almost every physicist agrees that for day-to-day purposes, Newton was right. Nasa launches shuttles and rockets on this basis. So, no, we see the same world that is out there. Hence, we cannot be the primal cause of the world we experience, since we are within that world.

Do you see what reading could do for you? You have so much to learn, grasshopper - and the worms are hungry again.
 
Einstein's work relates to the perceived world. Do you understand that? It relates to perceived speeds. It doesn't relate to a real world external to our awareness since we cannot observe such a world!!!!!!!!!
So what is it that we ARE percieving? What was the world doing before we percieved it? Nothing? just waiting around for us to percieve it?
You have never addressed the consistancies. Why are our perceptions consistant? It is because of these consistancies that we have a right to make the assumption that the world we are percieving exists. We cannot change it at our wim. Your lack of producing a miracle pretty much confirms this. You have presented no cogent argument or proof otherwise. You simply make the assumption the world does not exist even though you have "absolutly" no controll over it.
 
Upchurch said:
Whoa. Stop. How do you know that we cannot observe an world external to our awareness. I'll concede that we might not be perceiving such a world, but you've never shown that we cannot observe such a world.
Upchurch, even if there is an external world, it is impossible to observe it. All we can do is observe our own sensations - observe the perceived-world.
Hence, whatever order we discern relates to that perceived-world.
Hence, Einstein's work relates to perceived space & perceived time & perceived lightspeed - the perceived world.

Now, what 'that post' tried to explain was that "relativity" is something which occurs within the mind. It's only possible to have conflicting reports of localities of space and time because these parameters are subject to variance within individual awareness.
So when we contemplate the possibility of a real-world existing beyond and apart from the perceived-world/awareness, we must realise that the space & time between any two real objects is not negotiable - that all spaces and times are of definite values.
For example, the length of a real train is not negotiable - whereas the length of a perceived-train is, depending upon the observer doing the measurement.

A real world must be full of definite/absolute objects separated by definite/absolute space... and motion through definite space is also of definite value since relative-time is meaningless in such a realm.

I asked you all to take your heads out of the fishbowl of the perceived-world. Yet your responses do not indicate that you have done such a thing. Yet you must do this since relative variance only has meaning to events that are perceived within the mind.
If a real world exists, then everything obeys Newton's Laws of motion - including light.
Further, I find it <strike>amusing</strike> interesting that you admit that speeds are not simply additive, yet you claim that an external world much have simply additive speeds.
It's all been explained: speeds are not additive in the perceived world which is subject to variance of perceived-space and perceived-time.
In other words, if the distance between 2 objects is dependent upon the observer doing the measuring and the time to traverse the space between two objects or points is likewise dependent upon the observer, then it is clear that perceived speeds are not going to be simply additive.
However, where the subjective point-of-view of an observer is irrelevant - in the "real world", beyond relative-perception - then velocities would be additive.
In truth, the real world full of real objects are seperated by definite values of spacetime. You're mistake is that you are using the antiquated (pre-Einstein) ideas of "space" and "time".
That's nonsense. There are no universal values for anything related to distance & time - except the perception of lightspeed. Yet even this has been shown not to be 'absolute' in the true sense of the word since the defining parameters of that speed are a perceived variant.
 
lifegazer said:
... Einstein's work relates to the perceived world. Do you understand that? It relates to perceived speeds. It doesn't relate to a real world external to our awareness since we cannot observe such a world!!!!!!!!!

KNOCK KNOCK!

Hello, lifegazer, anyone home?

Your own philosophy puts the world we perceive external to our own awareness. Remember? How can you say on one hand, we cannot be perceiving a world that exists beyond our own awareness, but then on the other, say that the perception of the world is fed to our individual awareness by god? Can't you see the contridiction? Are you willfully ignoring this problem?
 
lifegazer said:
Upchurch, even if there is an external world, it is impossible to observe it. All we can do is observe our own sensations - observe the perceived-world.
Hence, whatever order we discern relates to that perceived-world.

OK lifegazer, lets go through this step by step.

First, we'll define our terms:

sensation A perception associated with stimulation of a sense organ or with a specific body condition: the sensation of heat; a visual sensation. The faculty to feel or perceive; physical sensibility: The patient has very little sensation left in the right leg.

observe To be or become aware of, especially through careful and directed attention; notice.

perceive To become aware of directly through any of the senses, especially sight or hearing.

Note how all three words mean the same thing when you are talking about perceiving things through our senses. We can observe our sensations, but the important thing is that we observe *though* our senses. We perceive *through* our sensation.

It's like this, an investigation can investigate a crime though evidence. You can also observe the investigation. To find out about the crime, you would want to observe the evidence, not the investigation.

Replace investigation with perceive, crime with external reality, and evidence with sensation.

It's like this, our perception can perceive external reality though sensation. You can also observe your perception. To find out about the external reality, you would want to observe your sensations, not your perceptions.

See what meaningless additions you are doing with the words?

We observe reality, whether real or fed to us by god, through our sensations, our perceptions.

If, as in your philosophy, our perceptions are fed to us by god, then what we are perceiving is an illusion, not real. If our perceptions our fed to us through external stimuli from the reality we exist in, then our perceptions show an external reality.


Now, what 'that post' tried to explain was that "relativity" is something which occurs within the mind. It's only possible to have conflicting reports of localities of space and time because these parameters are subject to variance within individual awareness.

It is not necessary for the experimentor to be aware of realitivity to measure it's effects. The experimentor does not even need to exist. The effects occur outside of our awareness.

In your philosophy, the only place relativity is taking place is within the mind of god, not within any one of our individual awarenesses. God is controlling a model that matches einsteins depiction of the universe. The differences we perceive are not because of our perception, it is because of the way god is modeling the universe.


So when we contemplate the possibility of a real-world existing beyond and apart from the perceived-world/awareness, we must realise that the space & time between any two real objects is not negotiable - that all spaces and times are of definite values.
For example, the length of a real train is not negotiable - whereas the length of a perceived-train is, depending upon the observer doing the measurement.


Again, from the view of spacetime, this is true. The only thing the universe needs to exist is to be mathematically, and logically consistent. If you can find a way the universe is either mathematically, or logically inconsistent, you let me know.
 
lifegazer said:
Upchurch, even if there is an external world, it is impossible to observe it. All we can do is observe our own sensations - observe the perceived-world.
The point is that there is not way to know whether or not perception is reflective of an external reality. Your saying that it definitely is not reflective of an external reality is just as much of an assumption as me saying that it definitely is reflective of an external reality. You cannot say it is impossible to observe it, only that we don't know if what we observe is representative of it.
That's nonsense. There are no universal values for anything related to distance & time {snip}
Correct. "space" and "time" are obsolete terms that really have no meaning since the early 20th century. But there are definite intervles of spacetime. The sooner you grasp this, the better.
- except the perception of lightspeed. Yet even this has been shown not to be 'absolute' in the true sense of the word since the defining parameters of that speed are a perceived variant.
You haven't shown this to be true. You've only claimed that the speed of light isn't absolute. Given that your conception of spacetime is almost a century obsolete, I have little hope that you might actually try to back this up in a reasonable fashion.
 
You should really study the mathematics of special relativity before you attempt something like this. It might help you avoid wasting your time.
 
RussDill said:
Right, but according to the master server, certain events are occuring simultaneously, which isn't necessarily true. The master server will say for instance, a occured before b, and make a decision based on that, but from another frame of reference, b occured before a.

Are you relating the death star as being the master server?
 
Wudang said:
If you're a materialist the fact we share an experience is explained by neural and mechanical linkages from my brain to my arm muscles through conservation of momentum to your head to your brain. I find idealist explanations lacking.

I don't deny this, but your conclusion that mater exist beyond your mind is something that I do deny.

It's like saying that your dreams exist beyond you.
 
wraith said:
I don't deny this, but your conclusion that mater exist beyond your mind is something that I do deny.

It's like saying that your dreams exist beyond you.

Not a conclusion at all. An explanation, as I said. The two words have different meanings.

What reason do you have to deny it? What exlanation do you have for shareed experience, assuming you're not a solipsist?
 
Wudang said:
What exlanation do you have for shareed experience, assuming you're not a solipsist?
My memory is fuzzy, but, if I remember correctly, wraith (via The Word Of Franko) is a solipsist.
 
Wudang said:
What reason do you have to deny it?

What reason do I have to deny matter existing beyond its perception?

Name one thing that you've sensed beyond perception.

What exlanation do you have for shareed experience, assuming you're not a solipsist?

Why would being a materialist help answer this question?
 
Upchurch said:
My memory is fuzzy, but, if I remember correctly, wraith (via The Word Of Franko) is a solipsist.

With a memory like that I would have no worries giving you my credit card and my pin number.
 
wraith said:
What reason do I have to deny matter existing beyond its perception?

Name one thing that you've sensed beyond perception.

That's a nonsense question. You're asking to describe something he's sensed without sensing it.

On the other hand, there are things we can infer exists based upon perceptions that are not directly related to that thing, which we can then later confirm to exist through perception. Further, there are things that we can be told exist, beyond our perception, which we can later perceive. Finally, we can be told that effects may occur relating to phenomenon which we cannot perceive, but we can perceive the effects, therefore allowing us to infer through perception their existence.

So, again, the ball lays in the solipsist court - what reason do you have to deny matter existing beyond its perception? Avoiding the question by asking the counter-question is not a defense nor an answer.
 
Upchurch said:
Wasn't there a "Precoginator Solipsist" in your religious beliefs, or some such?

Yes there was, but how does that imply that I'm a solipsist?
 

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