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Need Help with Randomizing for Experiment

As it stands, it's non-binomial and apparently I've confused the definition of independent; but does my sense of it still hold: There's no way the guy can use knowledge that it's 10/10 to obtain any advantage, using the new and improved distribution that GA posted a few posts ago?

But, using the wrong distribution (binomial) to assess his performance in the 10/10 scenario would result in slightly over-estimating his ability relative to the null?

After re-reading the thread and looking at what you were responding to (with the issue of knowledge), I think I know what question you are asking here. You are right. The guy does not gain an advantage, but the distribution used for comparison changes from binomial (guessing with replacement) to hypergeometric (guessing without replacement).

Linda
 
Hey, Amapola, whatever happened with this experiment? I don't know why I suddenly remembered something from over four months ago, but I did, and I was curious...
 

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