Nonpareil
The Terrible Trivium
And I changed the subject because I gave all the arguments I have, Nonpareil. And you have another opinion obviously. You don't see the fallacies in your own 'reasoning'.
You haven't shown any.
You do know that there are defined logical fallacies, yes? You don't just get to declare "fallacious" and then walk away. You have to actually back it up.
For example, saying that we should give your proposed undetectable sleep paralysis demons any sort of consideration whatsoever, and ignore the proposition that there is an invisible unicorn outside my house right now, is an example of the fallacy of special pleading.
The fallacies are:
"when you can't prove x, x does not exist."
It's not because you are unable to prove something (yet), that x does not exist.
And this is an example of the strawman argument fallacy. At no point have I argued that something does not exist just because it can't be proven yet.
What I have argued is that if something can never be proven, ever, under any circumstances, even in theory, because it has no measurable effect whatsoever on our universe, then it does not exist.
Being unable to prove something right now doesn't make it nonexistent. But if something cannot ever, even in theory, be detected in any way, then it meets the definition of nonexistence. There is literally no difference between it and any given imaginary entity.
"something is real when it interacts with our Universe"
In the multiverse hypothesis there are universes postulated as being 'real' wich are not interacting with our universe.
If these universes are ever proven to be real, guess how it will happen?
That's right. By measuring the effect it has upon our universe. If there is literally no effect from these proposed other universes upon our own, ever, then detecting them is impossible, multiverse theory has no supporting evidence, and it will be discarded. On the other hand, if detecting them is possible, it will necessarily be because something in our universe is different because they are there, and so they meet the definition of existence.
Which makes your entire argument the most basic logical fallacy of all: the non sequitur. "If multiverse theory is true, then this definition is wrong!" Well, no. This definition is valid even if multiverse theory is true.
So where, again, is the fallacy?
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