Neither. The answer is basically "it depends." Say each card lasts exactly 80,000 hours then fails. Then the MTBF for the box is the same, 80,000 hours.
But it's more likely that it looks something like this imaginary card with a life up to 9 hours:
1 hour -- 10% .1
2 hours--15% .15/.9 = .167 failure rate
3 hours--20% .2/(1-.1-.167) = .2782 failure rate
4 hours--15%
5 hours--10%
6 hours--10%
7 hours--10%
8 hours--5%
9 hours--5%
The MTBF for this card is (.1 + .3 + .6 +.6 + .5 + .6 + .4 + .45) = 3.55 hours. The midway point is somewhere between 3 & 4.
But make it two identical cards, and the chance that at least one will fail in the first hour is (1-.81). In the second hour the chance that the remaining 81% will fail is 30%.
Failure rates per hour
1 hour -- = 1 - .9 * .9 = .19
2 hours -- (1 - (1-.167) * (1-.167))/.81 = .378
19% of boxes last 1 hour
30.61% of the remaining boxes last 2 hours.
This is messy, but you can see it basically isn't either of your answers.
I disagree with this assessment, because it says "mean time before failure" which to me doesn't indicate the maximum likely life of the unit. I think your analyses works only if we assume the 80000 value is maximum (or near the maximum) time until failure (MTUF?)
In your first example, the standard deviation would be zero, and all you'd need to know is the mbtf. So, I agree.
In any other scenario, you'd need to know the variance to figure it out (as people above suggested).My guess is it's a bell curve (isn't that the law of large number thingy), so you could then calculate z scores and figure out the odds.
Two examples:
Mean 80,000 hours, standard deviation 10,000 hours.
What's the probability any one card would fail by 60,000 hours or sooner?
That would be a z score of -2.0, which has a probabilty of .0466.
So, the odds any one would fail in a box of 20 within 60 hours or sooner would be 1 - .9544 to the 20th power, which if I did it right is .607.
So, with a large SD, there's a fairly high chance one-- meaning the whole thing-- would fail within just 60,000 hours.
Example 2:
mean 80,000 hours, SD 5000 hours.
The same question produces a z score of 4, which has a probability of only .00003.
The probability that one will fail within 60000 hours or sooner is now: .0006!
The P one would fail within 65000 hours or sooner would be (z = 3.0) = .036
Within 70000 hours or sooner, p = .607
Within 75000 hours or sooner, p = .969!
Much different results across the 2 examples, with everything depending on the SD, and assuming the distribution is normal.
Interested in seeing how and if I f'd this up.
I wonder too, MTBF??? Is there any kinda calculation called MILF?