It become quite obvious, that the idea of 'Free Will" is an obsolete idea, just like ghost, soul etc.
This statement has been bugging me, so I thought I'd address it specifically.
As far as I'm concerned, "Free Will" is not now, or ever will be an obsolete idea. The concept of free will, or some equivalent concept, has significant moral and legal ramifications. Here are some hypothetical examples...
First example,
Someone is in a courtroom, continually interrupting the proceedings with obscene statements. In the normal course of events such a person would be charged with contempt of court.
But what if this person suffers from an extreme case of Tourette's syndrome, and has no control over these actions because they are not a product of that person's internal decision-making process? (And can't leave because they're required to be there.) Should a person with Tourette's syndrome be given the same punishment for acting in this way as someone who is capable of controlling their actions, but chooses not to do so?
If not, what's the difference? The difference is that a normal person who makes obscene statements in court does so from their own free will, while the person with Tourette's syndrome is not.
Second example,
Some people force a gun into your hand, and points your arm at a person tied to a chair. You try to struggle, try to release the gun, but are overpowered. The apply a cattle prod to your arm, causing your fingers to clench and fire the gun.
A person is dead, killed by a gun in your hand, the trigger pulled by your finger.
Does this make you a murderer? No, because killing that person was not an act of free will on your part.
(But if you claim that nobody has free will, wouldn't that mean
nobody is a murderer, no matter how many people they kill?)
Third example...
You lose control of your car, and plough into a group of pedestrians. Several people are killed. But there is nothing mechanically wrong with the car. The police do a blood test on you, and discover high levels of an illegal drug in your system. Normally, you would be charged with multiple manslaughter (and driving under the influence).
If you knowingly took illegal drugs before driving, then you would be morally and legally responsible for their deaths.
But what if you
didn't knowingly take illegal drugs before driving? What if someone mixed them into the meal you ate before you left, and you didn't know you had taken them, and hadn't experienced any noticeable effects before getting into the car?
You did not take the drugs of your free will (that decision was made by the person who put them into your food without your knowledge), you did not choose to drive under the influence of illegal drugs of your own free will (because you didn't know you were under the influence).
So can you be said to be morally responsible for the deaths of the pedestrians?