CFLarsen said:Why is this not a human construct?
The language used to label it is the human construct.
Without anyone telling me (ie if I lived in absolute solidtude) I would be free to speak, bear arms, worship how I wanted to, etc.
CFLarsen said:Why is this not a human construct?
Then you are calling a society consisting of humans non-human based on the absence of some intangible concept. I fail to see why such a society would not be human.Originally posted by Kodiak
It is not difficult to imagine such a society, but it wouldn't be human...
They do sometimes do things that are quite similar. Another victim of lions, the zebra, is well known to sometimes attack troops of lions both to show the lions that they don't surrender without a fight and to set an example: to show young zebras who their enemy is and who to look out for.I've never heard of a gazelle or antelope charging a cheetah or lion with attempted murder
Here, or here or elsewhere.Evidence, please...
I disagree. I think all evidence shows that there are quite a few people who prefer to define these things are purely human traits, the only way you can exclude animals from such a definition is by demanding abilities from them that humans have not proven to have. I don't know any experiment that all humans can pass, but no animal can.All evidence suggests they are.
I am quite serious."One small difference"?!?!? Are you serious?!?!?!?
Then show me a vacuum where 'rights' exist and are 'absolute' and prove that they exist and are absolute without interacting with them. Doesn't sound very easy to me.In a vacuum they exist and are absolute! No interaction is necessary!
Or: only through social interaction do they get any meaning and can their existence be proven.Only through "social interaction" are they affected, limited and infringed.
How about this: suppose you live with a person who does not believe you have the right to free speech and can forcefully stop you from speaking freely. How do you determine whether you have an inherent right to free speech or not?Originally posted by c0rbin
I don;t know. One may not believe that I have the right to speak freely inherently, but that does not make it true.
If that person merely "believed" I had no such right, I would still speak freely.
If that person was not around to forcefully stop my free speech, I would speak freely.
The only thing to stop me from speaking freely is that person's use of force.
Your society of one. Which is not much of a society of course. If you are alone, all the concepts you think of a purely subjective to yourself. How much you experience you have a freedom of speech depends only on what you allow yourself to say. Only with other people can they become intersubjective.If I am alone on a desert island and speak freely, which society constructed that concept?
I think you are right. Of course what we are talking about is the concept of a right, for example the concept of the right to free speech. We are not discussing any physical ability.I think the social construct you are referring to is the language itself, rather than the proclivity.
Depends. If you mean the ability to recognise tones and rythms and produce them, then it objectively exists and has physical properties in the brain. If on the otherhand you mean the ability to produce something that people will recognise as music, it has no real physical properties and does not exist objectively, but instead it exists intersubjectively. The tones and rythms made by someone are not objectively 'music', they are only music if other people consider them music through their own subjective experience.Originally posted by shanek
Musical ability objectively exists, but has no physical properties.
Love has no objective existence, because it purely depends on the subjective experience of people. If one person loves another person, love exists only subjectively. If two or more people show their love for eachother, love exists intersubjectively.Love objectively exists, but has no physical properties.
Okay, this is a bit better example. But I will still argue that logic does not objectively exist. It exists intersubjectively. There are many possible logical systems but all of them are invented by people. A logical system has a few basic assumptions and all people who agree on those assumptions also agree that the results of those assumptions must also be true if the basic assumptions are correct. Logic is therefore a tool for thinking about things. This does not imply however that there is only one possible kind of logic and people couldn't invent another kind. It also does not mean that someone can just invent a kind of logic and make a claim that something subjectively believed logically follows from it. Other people must be able to come to the same conclusions if they use the same kind of logic. This means that logic is intersubjective. It exists in the minds of many people communicating with eachother instead of just one. But it does not exist outside of people's subjective minds, so it cannot be objective.Logic objectively exists (if it doesn't exist, nothing objectively exists!) but has no physical properties.
Exactly the same way as they do with humans. If your dog chews on your slippers, you will try to make him understand that you don't allow him to do that and you might punish him hoping he will learn from it and not do it again. You hold him responsible for what he did. It is roughly as effective as doing the same to humans.This statement is only relevant if it is possible for people to hold them responsible. How is it possible to do so?
Earthborn said:Depends. If you mean the ability to recognise tones and rythms and produce them, then it objectively exists and has physical properties in the brain. If on the otherhand you mean the ability to produce something that people will recognise as music, it has no real physical properties and does not exist objectively, but instead it exists intersubjectively.
Love has no objective existence, because it purely depends on the subjective experience of people. If one person loves another person, love exists only subjectively. If two or more people show their love for eachother, love exists intersubjectively.
Okay, this is a bit better example. But I will still argue that logic does not objectively exist. It exists intersubjectively. There are many possible logical systems but all of them are invented by people.
This means that logic is intersubjective.
It exists in the minds of many people communicating with eachother instead of just one. But it does not exist outside of people's subjective minds, so it cannot be objective.
If your dog chews on your slippers, you will try to make him understand that you don't allow him to do that and you might punish him hoping he will learn from it and not do it again. You hold him responsible for what he did. It is roughly as effective as doing the same to humans.
Earthborn said:If your dog chews on your slippers, you will try to make him understand that you don't allow him to do that and you might punish him hoping he will learn from it and not do it again. You hold him responsible for what he did. It is roughly as effective as doing the same to humans.
shanek said:You show your ignorance. There is an entire science called music theory which shows objectively why different forms of music are pleasing; why some chords are major, some minor, some dissonant, there's mathematics behind musical phrasing, etc. Since the person can produce a tangible, objective product, it is an objective skill; nonetheless, musical ability itself has no physical properties. Every society's music, no matter how far separate and disparate, has all of these things in common for this very reason.
Responsibility isn't about punishment. We aren't talking about negative reinforcement.
Any behaviorist would applaud you*, and would apply your same logic to a human. "Understanding" is circularly defined, and is not causal. Of course, most humans will take umbrage at this--but then, I suppose most dogs would too, given the opportunity.Ed said:A dog associates stimuli and behaviors with outcomes. The word "understand" in this context has no meaning.
Oh, good...I was hoping I had answered.crimresearch said:Actually Mercutio, you did answer my question as to where you were going with this ( or where you were coming from) by fleshing out your behaviorist foundation...I apologize for not picking up on it in your earlier mention of it.
Not that it matters, since criminologists are taught from day one that behaviorists are misguided tools of Satan.
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LOL...well, yes and no, Shanek...I have a close friend who is a chapter author in The Topos Of Music, which is pretty much the current word in the mathematical science approach to music...I agree, there is this science, there is an amazing amount of objective stuff that goes into music...but...to suggest that that is all there is is ludicrous. Take something as simple as scales, for instance. Our "well-tempered" scale, which sounds so pleasing to the modern ear, was unfamiliar before Bach, when each musical key was tuned differently. What sounded "natural" before that point would sound unnatural now, and what is natural now would sound odd to their ears. Thus, even within "western" music, what is "in common" is a social construct, not a mathematical one. (But BTW, if this is an area of interest for you, I highly recommend the book!)shanek said:You show your ignorance. There is an entire science called music theory which shows objectively why different forms of music are pleasing; why some chords are major, some minor, some dissonant, there's mathematics behind musical phrasing, etc. Since the person can produce a tangible, objective product, it is an objective skill; nonetheless, musical ability itself has no physical properties. Every society's music, no matter how far separate and disparate, has all of these things in common for this very reason.
Why do you think that scientific study of love means that it is not a social construction? There is no reason to think this.
That may be true of one person's love, but not of love in general, which can actually be studied scientifically (and is).
Sorry...I don't really have a comment here, other than, as a behaviorist, to point out that "negative reinforcement" increases the frequency or strength of a behavior, whereas punishment decreases it. Please do not equate the two. These are technical terms; please be careful in their use.[snip]
Responsibility isn't about punishment. We aren't talking about negative reinforcement.
Mercutio said:LOL...well, yes and no, Shanek...I have a close friend who is a chapter author in The Topos Of Music, which is pretty much the current word in the mathematical science approach to music...I agree, there is this science, there is an amazing amount of objective stuff that goes into music...but...to suggest that that is all there is is ludicrous.
Take something as simple as scales, for instance. Our "well-tempered" scale, which sounds so pleasing to the modern ear, was unfamiliar before Bach, when each musical key was tuned differently.
What sounded "natural" before that point would sound unnatural now,
Thus, even within "western" music, what is "in common" is a social construct, not a mathematical one.
(But BTW, if this is an area of interest for you, I highly recommend the book!)
Why do you think that scientific study of love means that it is not a social construction? There is no reason to think this.
Sorry...I don't really have a comment here, other than, as a behaviorist, to point out that "negative reinforcement" increases the frequency or strength of a behavior, whereas punishment decreases it. Please do not equate the two. These are technical terms; please be careful in their use.
Whether you choose to call it "holding something responsible" or not, we functionally do hold animals responsible in some circumstances, and we do not hold people responsible in some situations (extenuating circumstances)...the line is not nearly so clear as you pretend it is.
Assuming this is true (I think it is only to a very limited extend, especially when it comes to forms of music that have developed independently from eachother) it shows that people's subjective experiences are similar because of a similar biology. It does not show music to be objective.Every society's music, no matter how far separate and disparate, has all of these things in common for this very reason.
Everything that is intersubjective can be and is studied scientifically. Take for example language. No one is born with language, we learn it from others by interacting with them. Still there are scientists who are studying language. There are also scientists studying culture or politics, all things that only exist because of people interacting with eachother.That may be true of one person's love, but not of love in general, which can actually be studied scientifically (and is).
Are they? I don't think so. Boolean logic is not compatible with fuzzy logic, because it knows no concept between true or false, while fuzzy logic knows an infinite number of states between them.Why are they all compatible?
They probably hope that because a logic system is internally consistent, other creatures may have invented something similar enough so they can understand ours. Because logic is intersubjective, they will try to communicate with the simplest logic system they believe the aliens might share with us. It is only a guess though that they will understand our logic.Why do scientists believe we could communicate with an alien species using logical constructs, since we would have those in common?
I think it will be difficult to prove that logics have commonalities among people who have never communicated together or haven't learned from common ancestors. We all have a few common ancestors so it is possible that certain ways of thinking show similarities because people were taught these things across generations. Languages show similarities too, and all that proves is that they evolved from a single one.How can these things be intereubjective and yet have these commonalities among people who have never communicated with one another?
It is a lot easier to argue the objective existence of computers or atoms, then things like love and freedom.Tell that to a computer. Or an atom.
What are we talking about then? Is the dog supposed to refund the damages it caused? The only reason it can't do that is because we don't allow it to own any property.Responsibility isn't about punishment. We aren't talking about negative reinforcement.
Are these specific sets of mathematics what defines beautiful, or have people learned to appreciate specific sets of musical mathematics?And in all of these, EVERY SINGLE ONE OF THEM, there is a very specific set of mathematics that defines them and determines why they're better for different purposes.
That does not prove 'love' exists objectively. At most it proves it has objectively measureable results or measureable intersubjective results.Because, again, we can judge the output scientifically.
Perhaps you can give an example that shows that humans can.Okay, then answer me this: can an animal use its training to decide how it should act in situations it has not been trained for, like humans can?
Earthborn said:Assuming this is true (I think it is only to a very limited extend, especially when it comes to forms of music that have developed independently from eachother) it shows that people's subjective experiences are similar because of a similar biology.
Are they? I don't think so. Boolean logic is not compatible with fuzzy logic, because it knows no concept between true or false, while fuzzy logic knows an infinite number of states between them.
What are we talking about then? Is the dog supposed to refund the damages it caused? The only reason it can't do that is because we don't allow it to own any property.
Earthborn said:Are these specific sets of mathematics what defines beautiful, or have people learned to appreciate specific sets of musical mathematics?
And who has decided which sets to use and consider beautiful, except people interacting with eachother?
If what you say is true, then it should be possible to build a machine that looks at all the mathematical traits of a musical piece and decide whether it is beautiful or not. I don't think this is possible. You're not allowed to use neural networks of course, because that is cheating:
it would mean you use a simulation of a brain to make the decision,
Perhaps you can give an example that shows that humans can.