First off, a suggestion: use the quote tags to separate your comments from the comments you respond to. Otherwise anyone replying to you has to manually insert your comments into their reply.
Again I believe the change from the initial "Relative Velocity" concept as proposed between cocks to the current consideration of "Who Accelerated (Switxched Frames) puts SR into an actual absolute system vs "Mere Relative Veloicty". You are measuring a "Relative" velocity change to some unknown absolute inertial frame velocity and not relative velocity between clocks.
The existence of absolute acceleration is separate from the existence of absolute velocity. Even under Galilean relativity, you have the former but not the latter. And the whole point of inertial reference frames is that they are
not absolute: there are an infinitude of inertial reference frames, each moving with respect to the others, and in each of them the laws of physics look exactly the same. So none of them can sensibly be called absolute. Rather than demonstrating a shortcoming of the existing model, this response suggests a shortcoming in your understanding of that model. Again: we don't even have to look at special relativity, all of these issues arise under Galilean relativity, and you don't even seem to have a firm grasp of that.
I recognize the difficulty and appreciate the problem. It is not simple to describe even in words much less a formalized mathematicaly model
It doesn't matter if it's difficult: the point is, you have not done so. Without such a mathematically defined model, nobody else can evaluate it in any sensible fashion. Hell, you can't even make quantitative predictions
yourself if you can't frame your theory in mathematical terms. That's not physics. It is, at best, philosophy.
of a spatial medium thatis omnidirectional multi-energetic (virtually infinite velocity components) which interact only at the v = c to an observer with relative velocity to any inertial absolute velocity light source so as to generate a photon. Every observer with different relative velocity to the light source therfore is seeing different photons and light is NOT actually invariant but merely the measurement is invariant to the observer frame.
Have you ever heard of pickle bugs? They lay eggs in cucumbers, and when the eggs hatch, the larva start to eat the cucumbers from the inside, growing to fill the hole they create. When the larva are full grown and before they go through metamorphosis, they take on the appearance of the cucumber they consumed. In fact, they're often mistakenly picked by farmers, who throw them in with other cucumbers. Normally not a problem, they finish metamophosis and crawl away, and no one is the wiser. But metamorphosis gets interrupted and the larva dies if the cucumbers are pickled. So these pickle bug larva get canned along with all the other pickles, and unsuspecting consumers end up taking out a pickle bug larva and biting into it, thinking it's a pickle. At which time they notice that a pickle bug larva tastes... just like a pickle.
What's that you say? There's no such thing as pickle bugs? How do you know? How can you be sure?
If there's no way to distinguish the existence of something from its non-existence, then it what sense can it exist at all? The same applies to the aether (as a medium for electromagnetic excitations) and to your excitations traveling at something other than c which are only observable at c. There is no way to distinguish between their existence and non-existence. Just like the pickle bug, you may be able to create a theory which posits their existence, but you can only do so by making them like the pickle bug: non-observable.
Untrue. If a calculation of passage (theoretically friction free, absolute seal, minimal theoretical "0" contact pressure, where kenetic energy is captured by submersing the sphere into the valve body volume and once sealed in the upper area then exposed to minimal thin film gap hence only sphere volume of air to re-compress as "Gravity" continues to move the sphere down through the valve, results in an out put mathemaitcally.
Once again, these details
do not matter. Unless the valve itself is doing net work on the ball (in which case you don't need gravity, the valve itself is your perpetual motion machine), the only possible way to extract energy is if the path integral of work done by gravity around a closed loop is nonzero - ie, gravity is non-conservative. There
is no alternative. That you do not understand these
very basic issues goes to my previous point 1: you have not demonstrated a solid grasp of what is already understood by physicists. And the issue of conservative vs. nonconservative force in regards to energy conservation is not simply a matter of theory: it's an absolute distinction for
any theory.
This can be easily envisioned if you follow the process carefually. This does not mean "Petual Motion" because by definition it is only perpetual if there is no outside source of power.
In other words, you think gravity is not only non-conservative, but it draws energy from somewhere else in order to do this work. Where this energy is being lost from remains unspecified. You'll have to do a lot better than that to convince anyone.
FYI: 55 years ago when I first concienved of UniKEF I predicted that massive gravitating bodies would be found to have a heat component linked to gravitational poetential. In 1964 NASA found just such component which as yet may not have been satisfactorliy explained.
Again, not good enough. What "heat component" has NASA found? How is it any different than simple compressional heating? Has NASA really not found any explanation for it using standard physics? And can your theory actually predict this heating
quantitatively? None of these questions are answered, let alone addressed. Without them, your claim is pretty much meaningless.
I also made several other priori's which have been found to be true.
Also not good enough. Existing theories have made predictions which were found correct too. This in no way distinguishes your theory as any better than, or even
as good as, existing theories. You need to show numbers 2-4 above. Which you haven't done.
So whuile my theory is only barely mathematically considered
Which makes it essentially useless.
the general concept seems correct
"seems" isn't good enough. It has to be something that can be evaluated
quantitatively, which your theory cannot be.
which is why Iam perhaps more stuborn than most to accept rhetoric and current physics as the exclusive answer.
Exclusive answer? No, it's not the exclusive answer. If you were in the field (and no offense, but it's obvious you're not), then you'd know that there are MANY areas of active debate and contention. The areas that are not actively debated are so because they have been long settled: experimental evidence for the correctness of those theories is overwhelming. That does not mean that the theories are taken as being absolutely correct, but it DOES mean that, like Newtonian mechanics for moderately large and slow objects, they are at least excellent approximations. Any theory which aims to take their place must, just like special relativity does with Newtonian mechanics, reduce to existing theories in the limiting conditions in which existing theories work so well. But just as with pretty much everything else in physics, you need your theory to be framed in mathematical terms in order to be able to evaluate it in this manner. But you have not done so: your theory has no mathematical formalism, and so is essentially untestable. It cannot be disproven for the same reason it cannot be tested in
any meaningful manner.
It is unfortunate that professionals are unable to have dialog in common language because your use of terms assume certin conditions which are not supported in the alternative views.
No, MacM. The terms "momentum" and "force" do not
assume anything. They are quantities which have rigorous
definitions. A definition is not an assumption. You are using those words in ways which conflict with those accepted definitions. As a result, your statement was nonsensical. Now, if you would prefer to use some other definition besides the standard accepted definition, you may do so. But in such a case, the burden is on you to
provide the definition you want to use. You have not done so. Without an alternative definition, I have no recourse but to try to apply the standard definitions. And the result, as already mentioned, is not even grammatically correct.