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Materealism and morality

Well, I more or less said it on the post.

I defend the position of epiphenomenalism. It means that the mind and the brain are logically separate entities (can be concieved to exist one without the other), though the mind causually depends on the brain to exist. I also defend that the mind has no causual effect on the brain, but the brain does have causual effect on the mind. Also, the mind is immaterial (not composed of atoms).

Unfortunately that's many words and very little claim to either defend or attack. What would be a falsifiable prediction based on that position?

The only thing that sounds even remotely testable is this: "I also defend that the mind has no causual effect on the brain".

Superficially, that would seem to be false, as we can see things happening in the brain on an MRI, for example when someone smooth talks you from a position of authority: http://www.theregister.co.uk/2009/03/24/brain_blunder_warning_hat/

You can see the actual lobes switching off, once somebody pretty much switched to auto-pilot and just nods through what the expert has to say.

Does that count as the mind influencing the brain?
 
Good! You finally seem to get to understand my argument!

My argument was that it is logical possible that a disembodied mind exists.
Therefore the analogy doesn't hold, and mind to brain isn't what baning is to rocks.

Perhaps now you will understand that I did not argue that "a disembodied mind can logically exists, thus it exists "- but that "it can logically exist, thus it isn't a property. ".


By the way, banging IS a separate entity from the rocks. It is possible that after I did the bang, I destroyed the rocks very quickly, and created a situation when the banging exists, but the rocks exist no more. So it is a separate entity. It is simply an effect, and rocks are a cause.

An example I brought is that roundness cannot logically exist separate from a ball. Can you destroy a ball, yet leave the roundness? Logically, you cannot.

"Banging" does not exist. It is a word. A description. It describes what my hands are doing with the rocks. "Banging" did not reduce the rocks to gravel.
The force of the rocks contacting eachother did.

The "Mind" does not exist. It is a description for what the brain is doing. The mind does nothing at all. the brain does it.
You cannot separate them logically.

You cannot separate banging from the rocks and hands. I cannot bring the rocks together without bang. I cannot bang without bringing the rocks together.

It is very simple cause and effect.
 
First, do you mean by banging the sound that occurs when the rocks come together? If you do, then surely it exists.

See, I understood your point all along Jetleg. It is you that is not understanding mine. I cannot figure out how I can make myself any more clear.

This statement you just made demonstrates that you have no idea what I just said.
 
This statement you just made demonstrates that you have no idea what I just said.

Why?

I want to clarify whether by "banging" you mean the sound of the banging, or the proccess of banging the rocks.

And I am sorry if I misunderstood you, english is not my native language.
 
Why?

I want to clarify whether by "banging" you mean the sound of the banging, or the proccess of banging the rocks.

And I am sorry if I misunderstood you, english is not my native language.

I'm sorry Jetleg, but what your native tongue is is irrelevant.
Me- I'm ignorant. I only know one language.

This is not a linguistic problem.

I said, "Very simple cause and effect."
That's it. Summed up in a neat little package.


I will try a different tactic: I have a question for you.

If I am snafflusagussing, what am I doing?
 
By "banging", do you mean the sound of the banging, or the proccess of banging the rocks?
 
Cause and effect.

That wasn't an answer to my question. Lets try again :

By "banging", do you mean the sound of the banging, or the proccess of banging the rocks one against the other?

(To clarify : the former will not occur in a vaccum, and the latter will).
 
Sneezing.

(Chuckle)

Nope. Good guess though.

But guessing is not going to give you the answer.

Do that thing the brain does, instead.

If you have no definition for the word, "snafflusagussing", you cannot say what action it is describing.
 
That wasn't an answer to my question. Lets try again :

By "banging", do you mean the sound of the banging, or the proccess of banging the rocks one against the other?

(To clarify : the former will not occur in a vaccum, and the latter will).

Irrelevant.

The answer is, "Cause and effect."

That is the answer to your question.
 
Irrelevant.

The answer is, "Cause and effect."

That is the answer to your question.

Ok, you didn't answer me. Lets try again :

By "banging", do you mean the sound of the banging, or the proccess of banging the rocks one against the other?

(To clarify : the former will not occur in a vaccum, and the latter will).

Or something else?
 
Ok, you didn't answer me. Lets try again :

By "banging", do you mean the sound of the banging, or the proccess of banging the rocks one against the other?

(To clarify : the former will not occur in a vaccum, and the latter will).

Or something else?
Jetleg, we can keep this up all day long.

I have answered you. The answer is "Cause and effect." Your straw man is irrelevant and I am not going to give in to it.

Spend more time trying to understand the answer than in trying to dream up a way to support your claim.
 
Whether the mind influences the brain is an interesting topic for a new thread. Maybe I will open one later.

Well, I'd think that would be an important factor in whether epiphenomenalism has any merit or not.

But anyway, once we get that out of the way, I don't see much left in that claim at all. And I'm left even more puzzled as to why you argued so much around some parts, like those thought experiments, or why you insisted on rejecting other similar examples.

I mean, let's look at it:

It means that the mind and the brain are logically separate entities (can be concieved to exist one without the other),

It doesn't actually say anything really profound, as long as you insist on "conceive" as the test. It just makes it a different concept. Not much to argue there. Sure, "mind" is a different concept than "brain", same as "running" is a different concept than "legs."

though the mind causually depends on the brain to exist.

And running depends on legs to exist.

(Skipping the claim we just elliminated.)

but the brain does have causual effect on the mind.

So do legs on running.

Also, the mind is immaterial (not composed of atoms).

I don't think anyone ever imagined a mole (as in, avogadro's number of mollecules) of running, so the similarity still holds.

The problem is that you insisted all along that it's somehow more special than that, and totally unlike a gazillion other such "dualisms". Which caused everyone to take a different guess at, basically, in which way is it more special and why?

So, ok, what is the profound claim there? Is there any falsifiable prediction you can make based on that?
 
Well, I'd think that would be an important factor in whether epiphenomenalism has any merit or not.

Epi..sm is a subset of dualism. I argued here for dualism.

It doesn't actually say anything really profound, as long as you insist on "conceive" as the test. It just makes it a different concept. Not much to argue there. Sure, "mind" is a different concept than "brain", same as "running" is a different concept than "legs."

And running depends on legs to exist.
...
So do legs on running.


The point is that it is logically impossible for running to exist without legs. Not that it is a different concept - but that it can logically exist separately.

An example I like more - > the roundness of a ball. The roundness of a ball is a property of a ball. Logically it cannot exist without a ball. Eliminate a ball, and you can't have roundness -> theoretically.

This is not the case with mind brain. Eliminate a brain, and theoretically you can have a mind. No logical contradiction. Eliminate the mind, and you can still have a brain. No logical contradiction.

Again, that it is a different concept is not the point. The point is that this concept doesn't logically depend on the other, as the roundness of a ball does on a ball.

I don't think anyone ever imagined a mole (as in, avogadro's number of mollecules) of running, so the similarity still holds.

The problem is that you insisted all along that it's somehow more special than that, and totally unlike a gazillion other such "dualisms". Which caused everyone to take a different guess at, basically, in which way is it more special and why?

So, ok, what is the profound claim there? Is there any falsifiable prediction you can make based on that?

Well...

First, notice that so far you haven't (and neither did Neverfly, and L The Detective) offer an argument why the mind is a property of the brain , and not just a cause of it. I have taken the burden of proof on myself, but I didn't have to do it.

Second, hm.

Well, in every example of physical proccesses that I managed to think about, there is some connection that I can see between the parts and the whole.

Take a cup. Break it into two parts. When I look at the left part, and at the right part, I can realize that combining them would result in a cup that would be able to hold water, right?

Another example is kynetic gas theory, that provides a logical link between the properties of each atom, and the behaviour of the gas as a whole.


It also holds for proccesses -> we can look at the property of each molecule, and then predict the reaction between them. There is a logical link.

We know that gravity exists between bodies, we know how it functions. And we can predict the existance of a system like the Solar system once we know how do the basic constituents function.

The reason I am a dualist, is because I do not see any logical link between the physical structure of the brain, and the qualities of the mind.

I quote from
"Choosing Reality: A Buddhist View of Physics and the Mind. " / Alan Wallace, chapter 23 :

When we inquire into our personal experience of physical and mental
events, we find that we encounter two types of phenomena that
bear distinct differences. Material objects characteristically have location
and may have mass, velocity, and physical dimensions. Thus,
they lend themselves to quantitative measurement and analysis. Some
mental events, such as physical pain, may be located in specific areas
in the body, but for others the notion of location seems inappropriate.
Where, for example, is affection located; or where are the recollections
of oneÕs childhood? It is possible to locate neurophysiological
processes that are associated with certain mental states, but science
has in no way demonstrated that the two are equivalent. It is possible
to trigger specific mental events by electrically stimulating areas of
the brain and to trigger specific neurological events by subjectively
stimulating the mind. This proves neither that the mental events can
be reduced to the physical nor the opposite. It is just as reasonable to
explain the evidence of introspection in its own subjective terms as it
is to explain the findings of objective science in its terms.
The concepts of mass, velocity, and physical dimension are all inappropriate
when discussing the whole range of mental events; nor
do they lend themselves to precise quantitative measurement. Just as
physical phenomena have their own unique attributes, so do mental
events have theirs. The dominant property of mental states is aware
ness. To define consciousness, we need not engage in mental gymnastics,
nor in abstract, philosophical speculation: it is that very event
of knowing, with which we are all familiar. The mental gymnastics
come in only when we try to define this firsthand event in terms of
noncognitive physical processes, configurations of matter, abstract behavioral
dispositions, emergent properties of the brain, and so on.
Mental events are modes of awareness, and it is this property that
distinguishes them from physical entities. Unless we allow our introspective
faculty to atrophy (for example, by subjecting ourselves to
the dictates of physical reductionism, which takes us away from experience,
not deeper into it) we must readily acknowledge that mental
events are every bit as real as physical events. Our thoughts, intentions,
and emotional states maneuver our bodies and thereby other
physical objects; likewise, material things are constantly influencing
our mental states. Subjective empirical examination of mental and
physical events indicates that both types of phenomena are in a constant
state of flux, both act as causal agents, and both are influenced
by causes that are themselves physical and mental.



I do not agree with everything he says. However, he does point nicely that mental states are radically different from material. Now, I agree that running is different from legs, but I can understand why is it that when legs come together, and move fast, and propel the person from the ground, running occurs. I see the link.

However, mind states are subjective - in the sense that they are _private_. (Like the post on pain. One cannot experience the pain of the other). If the mind is merely a "property"\"proccess" of the brain, I would like to know where is the link?

How do lots of atoms and molecules, which are objective, by the mere fact of coming together, produce something subjective? Where is the explanation of the property\proccess in terms of the atoms\molecules\neurons? I don't see any.


I am not going to deny the findings of neuroscience. However, since I don't see any type of relationship between the constituents of the proccess and the proccess \ the thing and its property, I am viewing it as a cause-effect relationship, and not as thing&property.

Am I clear? Even if you don't agree, do you see where I am coming from?
 
So, basically, we're back to an argument from ignorance and what fits your subjective taste?

Let me see. We have MRI scans and measurements that show:

- which brain lobes turn off when you suspend critical thinking and just let someone snow you 'cause they're surely an expert: http://www.theregister.co.uk/2009/03/24/brain_blunder_warning_hat/

- which brain lobes trigger which other lobes in a fight-or-flight situation, by gender too: http://www.theregister.co.uk/2008/06/17/amygdala_research/

- you can see and measure the process of, so to speak, the balance tilting one way or another until a threshold is reached, in a subconscious decision: http://psychcentral.com/news/2008/12/29/brain-makes-good-unconscious-decisions/3563.html (Basically it seems to work suspiciously bayesian.)

Etc.

I'm saying that we have a ridiculously large and increasing body of evidence of exactly what processes happen in the brain, when you're having one mental process or another. And we have evidence of exactly what brain damage causes which problems to the mind, and how the brain rewires to make it work again.

But nah, of course the brain wiring must be irrelevant to the mind, 'cause you don't believe in that evidence ;)

So basically we're back to my example with the clock and timekeeping. I look at the mess of cogs and springs ticking behind it and conclude that it looks like those cogs move the hands. You look at it and argue that, nah, timekeeping can be conceived without any kind of clock, just because some BS philosophers said so.

Replace "clock" with "brain", and "cogs" with "neurons" and you have exactly my or Joe's argument here. We're talking evidence of what those neurons do.

Blimey, all that neuroscience research must be wrong, because _you_ don't see the link there. Silly me, trusting actual research and measured data, instead of some buddhist philosopher ;)
 

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