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Masturbation and sin

There are any number of textual problems in the Greek, which mainly go back to the fact the authors and editors didn't agree with one another.

I can hardly see, though I am not a historian on this subject, how we can have any knowledge at all about what disagreements existed between authors and editors, or if they there were editors for the biblical texts.

So far as I can tell the JW take on topics like the nature of the afterlife and the divinity of Jesus is just as defensible from the texts. They just choose to be literal about the texts that say "A" and interpretive about the texts that say "not A" where as mainstream protestants do the opposite.

Which is where one could start a discussion about which interpretation is more true to the original intent of the authors. Its a social science interest to me, why people wrote this way about such things, and how they would understand these things.

I'll have to disagree about applying the word literally, since it doesn't really mean much. And especially that they take some 'A's literally... but I must admit that I grapped their name out of the blue, remembering something along these lines. I still think they fit the bill, but was merely meant as an example.

A little examination revealed that they do indeed only define doctrine from the bible, though I'll still say that do so out of their own translation.

So I call all my rights, to admit that the JW aren't good examples of my point... :P
 
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I can hardly see, though I am not a historian on this subject, how we can have any knowledge at all about what disagreements existed between authors and editors, or if they there were editors for the biblical texts.



Which is where one could start a discussion about which interpretation is more true to the original intent of the authors. Its a social science interest to me, why people wrote this way about such things, and how they would understand these things.

I'll have to disagree about applying the word literally, since it doesn't really mean much. And especially that they take some 'A's literally... but I must admit that I grapped their name out of the blue, remembering something along these lines. I still think they fit the bill, but was merely meant as an example.

A little examination revealed that they do indeed only define doctrine from the bible, though I'll still say that do so out of their own translation.

So I call all my rights, to admit that the JW aren't good examples of my point... :P

Actually, given all the various texts and versions and commentaries we have some pretty good idea of the various viewpoints in the early church. All translations pick and choose from various manuscripts. It's hard to even talk about the original intent of something like Matthew, which is an edit and expansion of Mark. The people who claim that they are going for "original intent" usually claim that there was a uniform, God-inspired doctrine that can be recovered somehow.

The JW choices are less popular than some of the others, but I don't see them as being any worse.

Now somebody like the Christian Scientists on the other hand....
 
Many "primitive" societies believe that a man has only so much "vital fluid" per lifetime, and that to waste it in ways other than making babies is not only a bad idea, but bad for your health.
This idea even persisted in Western society long after folks should have known better; there were more than a few mental-health "experts" around the turn of the century that thought masturbation caused imbecility, "mental weakness", madness, etc.
I don't suppose it's beyond imagining that some of these primitive notions were at the root of religious proscription....
 
ChristineR said:
Actually, given all the various texts and versions and commentaries we have some pretty good idea of the various viewpoints in the early church.

I don't doubt that we do, but right now, are you're talking about the church fathers commentaries? I.e Origen, Cyprian, Tertullian, e.t.c...

I still don't understand what you mean by editors, unless you mean the copies of the bible, found with small intentional corrections that preserves orthodox doctrine?

And as far as I know its pretty much possible, by examine the differences between the different copies of the bible, to work out the original with a fair amount of accuracy. I'm no expert on textual criticism, but since we have dug up several thousand copies/peices from the bible, it should be fairly possible to trace errors and orthodox corrections to 'preserve the right translation'. I don't know how well it can be reconstructed, but from what I've seen, what's leftover to debate is pretty small.

Its also a nice thought, that we could reconstruct an ancient document, so that it close reflects the originals in circulation. I'm just a student of nanotechnology, but if we can make plausible phylogenetic trees, why can't we do the same about textual errors? What methods are actually used in this field, distance-matrix calculations? ^^;

Of course I'm speaking outside my territory here, you seem to know a bit more about it than I do... btw is this discussion veering a little off course, weren't we talking about jerking off? ^,..,^
 
Sentzeu, you might read some of Bart Ehrman's stuff in that regard. "Misquoting Jesus" and "Lost Christianities" are both excellent.
 
So, masturbation is supposedly a sin in some religions, right?

Speaking of that, is that you in that avatar ?

The supposed rationale for this is that every sperm cell is a potential life and that the seed should not be wasted in an act of selfish pleasure.

DAMN! This means that when having sex we should find a way to use up ALL sperm... Ugh. Talk about population explosion.

Does anybody know the Catholic (or any other religion in which masturbation in sinful) position on this? Has the Pope ever said anything about it?

The Catholic position ? EVERYTHING IS EVIL. There.
 
I don't doubt that we do, but right now, are you're talking about the church fathers commentaries? I.e Origen, Cyprian, Tertullian, e.t.c...

I still don't understand what you mean by editors, unless you mean the copies of the bible, found with small intentional corrections that preserves orthodox doctrine?

And as far as I know its pretty much possible, by examine the differences between the different copies of the bible, to work out the original with a fair amount of accuracy. I'm no expert on textual criticism, but since we have dug up several thousand copies/peices from the bible, it should be fairly possible to trace errors and orthodox corrections to 'preserve the right translation'. I don't know how well it can be reconstructed, but from what I've seen, what's leftover to debate is pretty small.

Its also a nice thought, that we could reconstruct an ancient document, so that it close reflects the originals in circulation. I'm just a student of nanotechnology, but if we can make plausible phylogenetic trees, why can't we do the same about textual errors? What methods are actually used in this field, distance-matrix calculations? ^^;

Of course I'm speaking outside my territory here, you seem to know a bit more about it than I do... btw is this discussion veering a little off course, weren't we talking about jerking off? ^,..,^

Well, I'm no expert either, but I can give you some insights.

In a lot of cases the idea of an "original text" is kind of meaningless. Matthew for example appears to have been created from two separate texts (Mark and "Q") being combined, plus some other material of unknown origin. And "Matthew" felt free to alter passages that he didn't agree with.

The oldest manuscripts of Matthew are actually Coptic translations of Greek manuscripts. Most scholars think that the Coptic manuscripts are actually closer to the original as it came from "Matthew's" hands, but not everyone agrees. You can make a decent argument either way.

Versions that differed radically from orthodox theology like "Secret Mark" were actively destroyed. If we had a good copy of Secret Mark we could compare it's textual quirks to our manuscripts of the original Mark and see if we could reconstruct the original Mark. Alas, all copies of Secret Mark have been destroyed--including the fragment that miraculously turned up in the 1960's!

(Secret Mark is a pretty amazing story...I leave out many details.)

The Gospel of John appears to have been through at least two rewrites before it got to us. If someone turned up an older version of John the theology would be way out of line with the final version. Even if we reconstruct the original text of version one, it's not going in Bibles.

We know from the Church fathers that there was a lot of non-standard theology out there and that they all had their own texts. In some cases (The Sayings Gospel of Thomas, for example) these texts appear to be closer to the "original" than the standard version. No one is going to alter the parables in Matthew to make them closer to the "right" version in Thomas.

(Actually that's a lie...but the people doing the altering are not mainstream Bible publishers.)

So is the original what the distance matrix people believe Jesus said, what Mark wrote, what the church fathers declared to be the correct reading, or what fundamentalist protestants have been teaching for centuries?

The tendency in translations right now is to go for older manuscripts (often in Coptic) and preserve the idea that there is an original, real text. But at the same time modern translations are extremely free about altering passages whose theologies they dislike. By contrast the KJV was made from what they thought (wrongly) were the best manuscripts and was pretty faithful.

I haven't even mentioned the Old Testament...it's even more fun....
 
Catholic radio and TV shows? Here's an official looking link though.

http://www.usccb.org/prolife/issues/nfp/treatment.htm

Catholics are against fertility treatments for the same reasons they are against birth control and premarital sex. They believe in sex only in the context of marriage and reproduction. Any interference with this process is forbidden. No sex without reproduction, no reproduction without sex.

I have to wonder why, though. Is there an actual passage that says that sexual pleasure is a no-no ? "Thou shalt not moan", or something ?
 
So, masturbation is supposedly a sin in some religions, right?
The supposed rationale for this is that every sperm cell is a potential life and that the seed should not be wasted in an act of selfish pleasure. Or so I learned in Catholic school. (Okay, they didn't actually cover it in Catholic school, I got it from Monty Python's Meaning of Life, "Every sperm is sacred...".)
A friend of mine who used to be Catholic has been browsing the online catalogs of sperm banks in search of a potential father for her child and it got me wondering, if you are masturbating in order to donate to a sperm bank, is it a sin? I mean, if the intent of masturbation is solely for procreation, how is that sinful? In fact, it seems less sinful than sex with a wife that is not currently at the peak of her menstrual cycle, which is something the Catholic church does advocate (the "rhythm method") as an acceptable form of birth control.
Does anybody know the Catholic (or any other religion in which masturbation in sinful) position on this? Has the Pope ever said anything about it?

Well, speaking hypothetically, masturbation for procreation had better not be a sin. An acquaintance has enough, um, er, stuff collected to repopulate a smallish city. Just in case the apocalypse comes early, you understand.

M.
 
Ahem. I have no sperm to spill.

OMFG I finally found an instance where being totally disregarded by the church because I'm a woman has PAID OFF!

This calls for bananas!!

:Banane20: :Banane20: :Banane20:


...and as to the question, I dunno.
sort of brings up another question - is masterbation still a sin if you have had you tubes snipped? Or is the vasectomy the huge overriding sin that makes masterbation insignificant?
 
ChristineR said:
In a lot of cases the idea of an "original text" is kind of meaningless. Matthew for example appears to have been created from two separate texts (Mark and "Q") being combined, plus some other material of unknown origin. And "Matthew" felt free to alter passages that he didn't agree with.

I was simply thinking about the text attributed to the author Matthew, however said author composed it. I heard that the apostle Matthew, didn't really write the gospel, but so far I havn't seen much to support this other than two church fathers, giving different accounts of how Matthew composed it.

Versions that differed radically from orthodox theology like "Secret Mark" were actively destroyed. If we had a good copy of Secret Mark we could compare it's textual quirks to our manuscripts of the original Mark and see if we could reconstruct the original Mark. Alas, all copies of Secret Mark have been destroyed--including the fragment that miraculously turned up in the 1960's!

Ah, this one I know a little about. You'll have to excuse me, but there's something about that thing that reeks of balooney. Morton Smith happens to discover a forgotten peice of Mark, which just happens to support his own theories about Jesus as a magician and a homosexual, then the text magically disappears. No one besides him has seen it, alot of scholars have noted inconsistensy in style between Secret Mark and Clemens. Plus alot of other trouble...

All of this makes the claim sound implausible, especially after its rejection by most critics. Not to sound offending to you, but that's what it looks like to me.

The Gospel of John appears to have been through at least two rewrites before it got to us. If someone turned up an older version of John the theology would be way out of line with the final version. Even if we reconstruct the original text of version one, it's not going in Bibles.

This I also remember, but I didn't know if it what of the theology that was different. Do you know the specifics? The ressurection and Jesus as the son of God came earlier than John, but what points did the author/s of John try to add?

The tendency in translations right now is to go for older manuscripts (often in Coptic) and preserve the idea that there is an original, real text. But at the same time modern translations are extremely free about altering passages whose theologies they dislike. By contrast the KJV was made from what they thought (wrongly) were the best manuscripts and was pretty faithful.

Of course what you need is what the scholars have reconstructed as the greek version of the bible. Unfurtunatly I can't read ancient greek, though I'm lucky enough to live were I can ask questions to people who know more about this than I.

So is the original what the distance matrix people believe Jesus said, what Mark wrote, what the church fathers declared to be the correct reading, or what fundamentalist protestants have been teaching for centuries?

As far as I can see, the current greek bible that has been assembled is pretty close. I've seen some comparisons between certain verses and read discussions between people who know this better than I. Though there are small differences here and there, there's nothing Earth shatteringly new, or wildly different... Protestants also teach some doctrine, I'm just interested in the text itself, which seems to be pretty darn close to the original. However I'll look up this Erhman and read his books, once I'm done with The Road to Reality by Penrose.

I haven't even mentioned the Old Testament...it's even more fun....

Several oral traditions, which were later written down around 600BC? That's about all I know about that.

Belz... said:
Especially the massacres.

War makes for interesting history! ^,..,^

I have to wonder why, though. Is there an actual passage that says that sexual pleasure is a no-no ? "Thou shalt not moan", or something?

Nope...
 
More cross posting! The rhythm method is allowed because technically it's just making decisions about when you choose to have sex, but does not interfere with the "natural" sex act in any way.

Rhythm methods to encourage conception are allowed. These are about as effective as rhythm methods to discourage conception, but if they fail at least you're no worse off than you were before.
Modern Apocrypha:

The old Italian lady stood in St Peter's square, with her eleven grandchildren, listening to the Pope once again address a large crowd. It being 1971, he addressed Catholic doctrine on birth control, a topic of some moment at the time, as the Pill was quite controversial.

She'd heard enough.

Lifting here hand and raising her voice when the Pope paused in his speech, she cried out:

"Papa, you no playa the game, you no makea the rules!" :cool:

She got a standing O from all of the grandmothers in attendance.

DR
 
I was simply thinking about the text attributed to the author Matthew, however said author composed it. I heard that the apostle Matthew, didn't really write the gospel, but so far I havn't seen much to support this other than two church fathers, giving different accounts of how Matthew composed it.

The evidence that Matthew the apostle did not write Matthew is overwhelming. The date is wrong, the Greek is wrong, he says "'them" instead of "us," there's no record of it even existing until after 100 AD. Almost all scholars agree that Matthew was based on Mark. Most believe that there was actually one person with a pen responsible for text in more or less the version we have it, but there's not even agreement on that.



Ah, this one I know a little about. You'll have to excuse me, but there's something about that thing that reeks of balooney. Morton Smith happens to discover a forgotten peice of Mark, which just happens to support his own theories about Jesus as a magician and a homosexual, then the text magically disappears. No one besides him has seen it, alot of scholars have noted inconsistensy in style between Secret Mark and Clemens. Plus alot of other trouble...

All of this makes the claim sound implausible, especially after its rejection by most critics. Not to sound offending to you, but that's what it looks like to me.

We know that there were "secret" gospels from the Church fathers and a few manuscripts. Morton's manuscript? That's another question. In any case it appears that the manuscript was destroyed. I do have to say that most critics do not reject the Morton manuscript. Most Clement scholars believe it to be a genuine letter of Clement, and it would be very difficult to forge--you'd have to know antique Greek handwriting, Clement, and Mark very well. In fact the usual argument given is that it is too good, that it is probably a Clement pastiche.



This I also remember, but I didn't know if it what of the theology that was different. Do you know the specifics? The ressurection and Jesus as the son of God came earlier than John, but what points did the author/s of John try to add?

I believe the most common theory is that John I was a "signs gospel," a listing of Jesus' miracles. At various places John will refer to the signs as if they were a numbered list.

John II was probably a gnostic version. The resurrected Jesus was a spirit. Jesus was God, not a person. After we die we all become spirits (as opposed to the Jewish concept of resurrection of the flesh). Jesus is not coming back in any physical sense. Baptism is a magical rite that fills you with the spirit.

John III alters the most extreme Gnostic theologies to their opposites. (The logos became flesh, for example.)

Of course what you need is what the scholars have reconstructed as the greek version of the bible. Unfurtunatly I can't read ancient greek, though I'm lucky enough to live were I can ask questions to people who know more about this than I.



As far as I can see, the current greek bible that has been assembled is pretty close. I've seen some comparisons between certain verses and read discussions between people who know this better than I. Though there are small differences here and there, there's nothing Earth shatteringly new, or wildly different... Protestants also teach some doctrine, I'm just interested in the text itself, which seems to be pretty darn close to the original. However I'll look up this Erhman and read his books, once I'm done with The Road to Reality by Penrose.

I contend that the concept of an "original text" is meaningless. There were numerous texts contributed to by numerous people. Each sect had its own versions that it considered sacred. What we have now is the selection made by the sect that eventually won out. Had things been a little different Christians might be revering "Q" and Mark and the Signs Gospel as sacred and condemning Matthew as a clumsy pastiche of only historical interest.

The selection part is critical. We have a pretty good idea of the content of the books that the Church fathers picked out for us. You can compare this text to other versions and get huge differences, or you can just say that the huge differences aren't the same text.



Several oral traditions, which were later written down around 600BC? That's about all I know about that.

Arrgh, let's not go there! If you're a Protestant, your OT comes from a Hebrew manuscript assembled in the Jerusalem temple around the time of Christ. If you're a Catholic, your OT comes from a Greek translation of Hebrew manuscripts from around 300 BCE. The original Hebrew manuscripts are long lost, and differed in many ways from the ones used by Protestants. Some of the text appears to have never been in Hebrew, but others appear to have been more authentic and less altered than the manuscripts we have today.
 
Just got a copy of Ehrman's newest book on The Gospel Of Judas. Interesting stuff.
Although I normally recommend Misquoting Jesus or Lost Christianities to anyone that has any illusions about the "accuracy" of scripture, this one would be a good illustration as well.
 
Came in late into this debate, I hope it hasn't gone too much of track, eh?

To provide information about what churches believes what in this regard, its safe to say that there aren't any unified viewpoint on it. Since most christian churches uses the bible as the standard of their beliefs (though a few sects might use other, i.e Mormons, Jehovas Witnesses), and the bible lacks any real reference to subject, then there isn't any widespread viewpoint on this. The catholic church still, as far as I know, hold this to be a mortal sin. They don't however, get this from the old testament situation with Onan. You would be hard pressed to find one of their theologists, saying that Onan's sin was masturbation.

True, as Onan's sin of spilling his seed was withdrawal after lovemaking so he wouldn;t imprgnate his brothers wife, because he was SELFISH and wanted the WHOLE inheritance for himself...and so I think the Lord killed him.

A true judgment not for a sin of the flesh but for a huige sin of the heart.

Onan, Selfishness and Masturbation

[SIZE=-1]May I first be so bold as to say there is absolutely nothing in the Bible that either discourages or encourages masturbation. (SEE also [/SIZE][SIZE=-1]Masturbation and Good Health[/SIZE][SIZE=-1]) Yet because some people think that the Bible story about Onan, was a type of masturbation or a type of birth control, maybe I could have a go at sorting this out for possible discussion.

It states :

[/SIZE]
[SIZE=-1]Genesis 38:9 And Onan knew that the seed should not be his; and it came to
pass, when he went in unto his brother's wife, that he spilled it (his seed)
on the ground, lest that he should give seed to his brother.
[/SIZE]
[SIZE=-1]

So Onan wasn't masturbating at all but making love or '****ing his brother's wife, because it was his duty and responsibility to give her seed so her brother's inheritance wouldn't be wasted and his brother's lineage would go on. But Onan, it seems enjoyed the act and then pulled out at orgasm and spilled his seed so that she wouldn't get pregnant and possibly so that he would get the inheritance.

So it appears it was a terrible sin, not the sexual part which he was suppose to fulfill, but his heart problems and his greed and his selfishness. So this story has nothing to do with masturbation at all and is not an indictment against it, nor is it an indictment against birth control, but the whole true life story is a condemnation of Onan's greed and materialism and SELFISHNESS ......IMO

I mean along these very same exact lines, Judah was also suppose to give his duaghter-in-law Tamar, the opportunity to mate with another one of his sons, to carry on her 'deceased' husband's lineage through her, and yet Judah did NOT.And therefore Tamar dressed as a harlot in the open field where judah was to pass by, and had him give her seed, as was her right openly and yet she had to do it as a "prostitute'. (SEE Gensis 38)

Was Tamar wrong and a sinner, for playing the prostitute or was Judah in not giving her seed willingly ? So again biblically in this sense, the sin wasn't sex, the sin was not having sex and not giving the seed which gives life and a new generation. For in doing so we can literally be obeying the literal First Commandemnt of the Lord ..."Be fruitful and multiply" and to do this physically, it involves sex.


Don't you agree ?

David Jay Jordan
[/SIZE]
 
I have to wonder why, though. Is there an actual passage that says that sexual pleasure is a no-no ? "Thou shalt not moan", or something ?

But the Lord never said sexual pleasure was a non-no, the church screws up everything with its laws of man and oppression.

At the right hand of the Lord there are pleasures forever more...look it up...
 
I just saw noblecaboose's avatar, and now I feel like doing some sinning.
 

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