Totovader
Game Warden
- Joined
- Jan 31, 2007
- Messages
- 3,321
NOTE: managed to clear up my own confusion. I was reading not-p as not negative ("-") p. Which didn't seem to make sense. It now seems clear that not-p simply means "not p". Why the need for a hyphen I don't really get. Ah well.
I had asked previously if Gravy was merely stating the obivious, i.e. what I myself had already explicitly expressed, that there is no hard evidence of political conspiracy. I clearly stated that it was either this (stating the obvious) or an argument of ignorance. I didn't actually think that he would simply be repeatedly stating the obvious. My apologies for mistaking his intent.
I would very much like to see your proof that there was no political conspiracy involved (perhaps here you may think "Oh! He's talking about the possibility of political conspiracy, not falling towers, cell phones, etc." If so its something you could have clarified by reading my comments carefully).
You made another fallacious argument, here.
The burden of proof is on you.
Leaving that aside for the moment, as far as the structure of logical fallacies go, you're saying that you consider that lack of evidence invalidates a point of view?
("your claims are invalid- they lack evidence.")
You can hold any point of view you want- but in order for your argument to be considered valid, it requires evidence.
While it technically doesn't mean you're wrong if you don't have evidence- it's pretty difficult to maintain an argument that you are correct by admitting that you have no evidence to substantiate your claim- any chance of being right would be purely coincidental. That's not logic- that's gambling.
And, as a point of fact, it's not merely that you lack evidence- you lack a rebuttal to the evidence. There's a mountain of information that conspiracists simply must avoid in order to peddle their fantasies. By refusing to address the facts, conspiracists have to wrap themselves into various contortions to try and get around this- and end up crapping out fallacies left and right just to get out a sentence.
You yourself stated the Argument from Ignorance as "There is no evidence for p. Therefore, not-p." Now that we've cleared up my confusion over "not hypen p"while Gravy may have simply been stating the obvious (no hard evidence) you do seem by, claiming invalidity of the argument, to be employing this fallacy.
And you seem to be completely ignoring the point. If you're offended by the fact that you lack evidence, then I suggest you rectify the situation by basing your conclusions on the evidence, not trying to find evidence to justify your conclusions.
I have not committed an argument from ignorance fallacy. Your attempts to dodge the issues by claiming that I seem to have done so is quite desperate.
You're wrong and you don't have any evidence to support your position. You also have no rebuttal to the evidence that does exist. Your argument is invalid and easily dismissed.
That has nothing to do with the widely held scientific version of the events; that version is not right because you're wrong. It's right because it has corroboration of strong evidence. Period.
Using another example, lets go back to the useful case of Watergate. Despite hard evidence Woodward & Bernstein advance claims to their editor that the scandal may reach all the way to the White House. Were such claims:
a) invalid
b) justified by circumstantial evidence
c) always valid as the possibility exists as long as an alternate contention did not prove them wrong
d) something else
Thankfully the editor did accept them as valid claims and permitted the further enquiries that led to hard evidence being discovered.
You will need to explain in great detail what this has to do with the issue, here. You seem to be claiming that "because some people have a hypothesis with only small amounts of substantiation- we should accept all arguments without evidence to be equally valid".
Clearly, the difference between the Watergate scandal and any conspiracy theory is that the Watergate scandal had evidence. Well, that's just one of the differences, I guess.
The "therefore" is part of the format of the structures you provided as examples. I simply presented some alternate examples to try to explain my confusion over the interpretation of this fallacy.
Frankly, I don't care why you were confused over your interpretation. Providing me with examples to try and justify your failed logic is irrelevant to the failure. You injected the "therefore" in the wrong spot in order to change Gravy's argument. That was my point.
The "just plain wrong part" I already addressed, if Gravy was simply being repetitive and stating the obvious yes I was wrong, otherwise he and you (in you last post) were making Arguments of Ignorance.
Either "we" were right or we were wrong.
What a stunning admission...
The part that's so painful about watching you try and circle around this particular failure is that you have had to admit that Gravy pointing out you lack any evidence to substantiate your claim is "stating the obvious".
Wow.
The problem here I think was that without having a clear idea what my argument was you assumed you had proof of its invalidity. The possibility still exists of course, that you do have such proof and I will be appreciative if you can direct me to it.
There's no such thing as proof of invalidity. Your argument was invalid because you lack the evidence to support any of it. The burden of proof is on you to substantiate your argument- not on anyone else to disprove any random claim you happen to like at any particular moment.
If you have any evidence supporting your argument, then present it. Otherwise I think you can stop wasting everyone's time.
while Gravy may have simply been stating the obvious (no hard evidence) you do seem by, claiming invalidity of the argument, to be employing this fallacy.