Jaggy Bunnet
Philosopher
- Joined
- May 16, 2003
- Messages
- 6,241
http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/england/london/4721355.stm
I struggle to understand this verdict. He pled not guilty to killing her at all and no body has ever been found.
The jury has convicted of manslaughter and according to the report:
"The judge said despite there being no evidence or explanation as to what happened to Mrs Morton, there had been signs her husband was in a state of emotional turmoil at the time.
"I am sure it was a sudden flare-up brought about by a disagreement about schooling about which you felt strongly." "
If there is no evidence or explanation of what happened, how can the judge be "sure" of the circumstances surrounding her death?
I have a horrible feeling that the jury thought he was guilty but weren't sure beyond a reasonable doubt, so chose to convict of manslaughter as they were unwilling to let him walk free.
Perhaps someone with more knowledge of the legal system could help me understand.
I struggle to understand this verdict. He pled not guilty to killing her at all and no body has ever been found.
The jury has convicted of manslaughter and according to the report:
"The judge said despite there being no evidence or explanation as to what happened to Mrs Morton, there had been signs her husband was in a state of emotional turmoil at the time.
"I am sure it was a sudden flare-up brought about by a disagreement about schooling about which you felt strongly." "
If there is no evidence or explanation of what happened, how can the judge be "sure" of the circumstances surrounding her death?
I have a horrible feeling that the jury thought he was guilty but weren't sure beyond a reasonable doubt, so chose to convict of manslaughter as they were unwilling to let him walk free.
Perhaps someone with more knowledge of the legal system could help me understand.