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Lord Language Resurrection.

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Nay_Sayer said:
After some googling, Campanella was a 15th century Dominican friar. The only mentions of inventions are from catholic sites claiming he conquered Atheism and none of them say he invented anything.
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Campanella was the author of many books.
The main of them “The City of Sun”
It is the first attempt of the social project.
I am the social designer and the social inventor and he was.
 
bruto said:
The difference is that most of us here admit it. Part of your problem would be solved if you realized how zany your English mistakes are.
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Don’t put too much attention on my English.
Put attention on the interesting meanings of my texts and on my ideas.
 
Nationalcosmopolitan said:
What you think, that the ancient Greeks and ancient Romans believed that their languages are descended from the language of India?!
No.
The Greeks wrote from right to left, because their language is derived from the Semitic languages - related with the language of the Book of Books.
The language of the Romans descended from the Greek language.
All European languages are descended in the medieval from Greek and Roman and Arab languages.
In the Middle Ages was the total anti-Semitism.
Therefore Europeans could not recognize that their languages are descended from the Semitic languages .
So they came up with a stupid theory of the origin of their languages from Sanskrit.
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I have never read such nonsense, at least since the last time I read one of your posts. The Greeks adopted the "Punic" alphabet, but that doesn't mean that their language is derived from Phoenician.

The Greeks had to make changes to the Punic alphabet to make it suitable for representing Greek sounds. For example they turned some consonants into vowels, which do not need to be recorded as elaborately in the Semitic languages, where (unlike in Greek) the stems of words consist of their consonantal structure.
Nationalcosmopolitan said:
In the Middle Ages was the total anti-Semitism. Therefore Europeans could not recognize that their languages are descended from the Semitic languages.
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Such idiocy as that can only cause distress and irritation to any European Jew who has knowledge of, and respect for, the cultural and political history of Jews in Europe.
 
Nationalcosmopolitan said:
Just look on the map!
India is too far from Europe.
So there is very little possibility that European languages have their roots in Sanskrit.
And there is great possibility that the European languages have their roots in the Language of Book of Books.
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You are still wrong. Sanskrit descended from Indo-European as did all the European languages.

The term Indo-European does not indicate an origin in India. Why on Earth would you think that?
 
Nationalcosmopolitan said:
What you think, that the ancient Greeks and ancient Romans believed that their languages are descended from the language of India?!
No.
The Greeks wrote from right to left, because their language is derived from the Semitic languages - related with the language of the Book of Books.
The language of the Romans descended from the Greek language.
All European languages are descended in the medieval from Greek and Roman and Arab languages.
In the Middle Ages was the total anti-Semitism.
Therefore Europeans could not recognize that their languages are descended from the Semitic languages .
So they came up with a stupid theory of the origin of their languages from Sanskrit.
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There is so much incorrect information here that it will be faster to list the correct information:

"What you think, that the ancient Greeks and ancient Romans believed that their languages are descended from the language of India?!
No."

Most ancient peoples tended to have stories/legends/myths that attributed the existence of their language to some sort of divine intervention or gift. Which makes the above the only bit of correct information in your post.

The Greeks write from right to left because the ALPHABET they adopted developed from semtic alphabets that wrote that particular way. It has absolutely nothing to do with the root source of the language which is spoken.
 
Craig B said:
It's more likely to be a glitch in NC's Google Translate.
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Speaking of glitches in Google Translate, I saw this tonight, and it immediately put me in mind of some of the difficulties one sees here. It's an ad for a translator, in which it and Google translate are used on a sushi recipe.




edit to add: of course, there might be an advantage to the Google version, as it is undoubtedly easier to refrain from eating it for at least six days of the week.
 
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abaddon said:
What precisely is "holy" about it? Most here are atheists and nothing is inherently "holy".
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Atheist have to understand that the most readers have 4 Great Books of all 4 World Religious that have the highest rank of influence on billions of people for thousands years and especially in the modern and postmodern eras.
 
Craig B said:
I've been trying to elicit answers to that question. It really seems as if Cosmo believes literally that Hebrew is God's language - that was the sole speech in existence prior to the Babel "confusion of tongues".

I have asked whether God speaks one language better than another; being omniscient probably makes you fluent in more than one language. Also what language did God speak from all eternity up to the tenth century BCE when the Hebrew language starts to appear in the archaeological record?

Did the serpent beguile Eve in Hebrew?

But I have received no sane responses; only the mad idea that European languages derive from Hebrew.

Notice that in line with his general absurd Israeli-American imperialism, Cosmo is concerned mainly with European languages. And Hebrew. The thousands of other languages seem of less significance to him. Except maybe Pali, on account of the Buddhism thing. We'll see.
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When Buddhism has changed Hinduism?
In the time of Babylonian captivity of the 5th century BC.
India of Buddha and Babylon were in one Great Persian Empire with so called “Persian Empire Language” Aramaic that is very similar to Holy Language of Tanah.
That’s why I am almost sure that Sanskrit of early Tripitaka has it’s roots in the God Holy Language.
the proximity of those two places, the same time, the same Empire!
In those conditions the possibility of big influence of 1000 years old Tanah on the young Buddhists Tripitaka and it’s language is great.
 
ComfySlippers said:
Even GoogleTranslate isn't that bad. What the heck are you using that makes you think your random-verbal-vomit resembles English?
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I don’t intent to discuss here my English.
I intent to discuss here my Global Social Projects “New Saturday”.
If you have miss understanding of some of my sentences put your attentions on sentences that you understand good.
 
Craig B said:
No. Diversity of languages is the "cleverest thing". So people in all "correctly developing" countries must NOT be required to use English and Hebrew as "native" languages, as you have suggested.
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Do not misrepresent my ideas.
In my “New Saturday Great Union” every citizen will know natively from his childhood English, Holy Resurrected Language, the state language of the country were he lives and the native languages of his parents.
 
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