Pup
Philosopher
- Joined
- Dec 21, 2004
- Messages
- 6,679
In post 6722 I brought up some information on Skyrider44's claim:
I showed that a similar phrase was used, explaining that Christ's crucifixion was to prevent mercy "at the expense of justice," rather than mercy "rob[ing] justice." It was used in the period just before Joseph Smith wrote the Book of Mormon and I even showed its use in connection with New England revivals in the 1810s, indicating that Smith might have heard it specifically.
Perhaps Skyrider44 would be interested in explaining the significant difference between mercy not being able to rob justice and mercy not being at the expense of justice, and how one explains the situation adequately but the other doesn't.
One reason for Christ's atonement was to appease justice. This principle is well known, but only the BoM explains it adequately: "Alma asked, 'What, do ye suppose that mercy can rob justice? I say unto you, Nay, not one whit" (Alma 42:25)."
I showed that a similar phrase was used, explaining that Christ's crucifixion was to prevent mercy "at the expense of justice," rather than mercy "rob[ing] justice." It was used in the period just before Joseph Smith wrote the Book of Mormon and I even showed its use in connection with New England revivals in the 1810s, indicating that Smith might have heard it specifically.
Perhaps Skyrider44 would be interested in explaining the significant difference between mercy not being able to rob justice and mercy not being at the expense of justice, and how one explains the situation adequately but the other doesn't.
Then why are they available to all and sundry, even those who don't want to "search the material reverently, or at least sincerely, for themselves"? You can read the whole darn thing right