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Justification for strong atheism

Hi Bri, sorry for the delay, I hadn't been checking this thread. Actually, forgot I'd posted that! :)

Not a problem at all!

Anyway, I think we're just working from different definitions of faith. I'm not sure if this is a correct reading, but it seems that you're calling faith any viewpoint that isn't proven?

I disagree with that. But it's more semantics than anything.

Yes, I think that the difference here is mostly semantics. What I'm saying is that all viewpoints which are based on incomplete or inconclusive evidence are faith-based. In other words, almost all beliefs are based to some degree on faith (and to some degree on evidence). We all make judgements on the amount and strength of the evidence when determining what we believe, and as new evidence comes to light we might even change our beliefs.

Mainly I disagree because belief in something that isn't proven, but is just the most parsimonious explanation given the current evidence isn't just faith in it, it's the most reasonable course of action - given your current knowledge.

Determining the most parsimonious explanation given incomplete evidence is a matter of opinion. The evidence often seems to more clearly point one way or the other, but that doesn't mean that someone else might not consider the other evidence to be more compelling. Without definitive proof, either belief would be based on some degree of faith.

Faith isn't entirely unreasonable as it won't accept (at least most people's faith won't) things that are shown to be impossible, but it will accept things that aren't the most parsimonious hypothesis.

That assumes that the "most parsimonious hypothesis" can be definitively determined, and it can't in most cases. Believing the hypothesis that you don't find the most compelling might be irrational, but otherwise the rationality of a belief is only limited by the rationality of the reasons for belief.

Your point here seems to be that since neither viewpoint can be disproven, both are equally valid.

Not at all. In many cases there is clearly more evidence one way than the other (even in those cases, what constitutes "clearly more evidence" is a matter of opinion). However, I wouldn't characterize the evidence against the existance of all gods to be significantly more compelling than evidence for the existance of a God (that is to say that there is little evidence for either viewpoint), certainly not enough to declare that either belief is irrational. Whether either belief is equally valid is also a matter of opinion.

My own viewpoint is that given what we know about the universe the existence of God is less likely than it's non-existence.

Your opinion might be that your viewpoint is more valid than the opposite, but others hold that the opposite viewpoint is more valid. Neither opinion would be irrational given the current evidence (or lack thereof).

And for what it's worth I think the same statement could be made about Tokyo.

You're the first person I know who believes that Tokyo doesn't exist!

I would be open to arguments that suggest otherwise, of course. I reach this conclusion by Occam's razor - if we can explain everything we see equally well without God as with God, the explanation without God is more likely to be true.

There are many things that we cannot (currently) explain without God. Occam's Razor is also wrong much of the time.

Part of it isn't reasonable, though, I have to admit, in that I think in my own mind I skew the probabilities a little by the fact that I view the concept of God to be unlikely to begin with (ie. similar to the teapot orbiting Pluto. but how can we know anything about either proposition?). Nevertheless, I think the original reasoning is sound.

Your viewpoint is quite reasonable! I'm simply saying that the opposite viewpoint may also be reasonable.

Actually, I would modify this statement to say that it is irrational to believe something for which you believe the evidence is against at all.

You bring up a very interesting point. I had to think about that one for a while. At first I was going to agree that to hold a positive belief against what you consider to be the stronger evidence would be irrational, even if the evidence is close. However, if one has a compelling reason to believe otherwise, then I can't say that it's irrational even when the evidence might be slightly against your belief. As an example, if someone believes that the evidence is slightly in favor of no God, but still believes in God because that's how they were raised, I wouldn't necessarily consider this belief to be irrational. This might just be a blurring of what is considered "evidence" though, because a compelling reason might be considered to be evidence.

That said, some agnostic weak atheists hold that if the evidence is close, it would be irrational to hold a positive belief either way.

Of course this still requires an interpretation of the evidence, something which I don't claim to be especially good at. I can't say that anyone that believes in God is irrational, just that I think such a belief is unfounded. I can say that I think active disbelief in god is rational, but that's from my own weighing of the evidence.

It sounds to me as though you are very good at interpretation of the evidence. In my opinion, all of these statements are perfectly reasonable.

I think some of this comes from my characterization of faith as irrational or emotional belief. What I'd like to say is that while I still view it as such, it's only a different use of the word. For instance, your "faith" isn't something I would necessarily call faith. But maybe I'm misusing it. I just don't think we need to use the word faith for beliefs that have been come to based on rational thought. Faith seems to imply a belief that is independent of evidence, not just one that doesn't require proof.
(what I mean by independent of evidence is that new evidence, so long as it wasn't complete disproof, should not alter the faith, but again, this is my own view of the word's usage. Maybe I'm wrong.)

Yes, it does sound like you're attributing more to the word than I do, which would make it a semantic disagreement rather than a philosophical one. Faith really has no connotation of irrationality, and beliefs that are based on faith can come from rational thought.

-Bri
 
The point I was trying to make is that where a God's existence would not be expected to change what we know about the world in any way - where the world would be the same whether that God existed or not - there is no need for the God hypothesis.
And to me it seems less likely that the universe appears exactly as it would if God didn't exist, but God is there, than that there just isn't a God.
For instance, it's possible that the ghost of my mother lives in my kitchen cupboard, and there is no way for me to disprove this. But I find it less likely than that she doesn't. Maybe I'm coming to false conclusions?
I'm led to be this viewpoint by Occam's razor. But I might be misapplying it's usage.

There are two related concepts here. One is the concept of whether a God is consequential (affects the world in some way). For example, if someone believed that God's only contribution to existance was that he sneezed and caused the big bang (and was immediately killed in the explosion) then I say "so what?" That God is possible and certainly cannot be disproved, but has absolutely no bearing on anything. However, many theists believe that God is consequential (i.e. that God does affect our world), but that we cannot detect him. In other words, the world would not be as it is without God.

The other concept is whether God explains anything that cannot be explained otherwise. God does explain a lot of things that science cannot currently explain. Does that mean that God exists? Of course not. It's possible that science will someday explain everything. On the other hand, if God does exist, it is quite possible that science will never explain everything.

-Bri
 
Actually, the generally accepted definition of a strong atheist is one who believes that there are no gods.
Again I am somewhat puzzled by your contention that we can have detailed categories describing belief in god in absense of any definition of 'god' whatsoever.

If you use the word 'god' to mean some intelligent entity having greater intelligence and power than us then by your definition a strong atheist claims that we are the most powerful intelligent entity in the universe. I don't know if I have ever heard that claim.

On the other hand if you add the word 'supernatural' it opens up all problems of what 'supernatural' might mean. If this means 'outside the physics or our universe' then by this definition a strong atheist is saying that we are the most powerful intelligent entity in any universe. Again I have not heard this claim.
A weak atheist (who doesn't hold a belief one way or the other as to the existance of gods) can hold the belief that certain gods don't exist while still not holding a belief as to the existance of gods in general.
Somebody who 'doesn't hold a belief one way or the other as to the existance of gods' would not be an atheist at all - by definition. Or an agnostic.
Most agnostic strong atheists admit that their claim is at least partially based on faith (i.e. it is an opinion rather than fact) since there is no definitive proof that no gods exist.
To put this in context I personally believe that there is no island inhabited by sentient steam engines. But this strong athomism is at least partially based on faith (i.e it is an opinion rather than a fact) since there is no definitive proof that Sodor does not exist.
 
I'd like to know, in this thread, what theists who do concede their belief is irrational and totally faith based, on what they think of cults, FSM, Pink Unicorn and so forth. Because theists can't ask atheists to prove that god doesn't exist --- how do you prove a negative? How can one even prove that an apple can't fly? You can throw thousands of apples in the air and all fall down flat, but who knows if the next one will, or will not? This is basic logic (and may I say, common sense).

Well, I for one do not concede that my belief is "irrational and totally faith based;" in its beginning, my faith was based upon the testimony of others in my family and in my church. And as I grew in my faith and learned to walk in the light of God's word, I had experiences of my own which confirmed and strengthened my belief in God. Such as the first time I was fired: The boss called me into his office to tell me that business had dropped off and he was letting me go. Simultaneously and, by human standards, irrationally, I felt a great sense of peace accompanied by the thought that everything was taken care of. When I returned home that very same day, my father greeted me with the news that another company I had put an application in with three months previously had called asking if I was still available and offering me the chance to start immediately at a higher rate of pay. You can scream "coincidence" until you are blue in the face if you like, but I am completely convinced that it was God.

So as to what I and fellow believers think about the IPU and FSM: We see them as strawmen of the worst kind. I do not think you can produce even one person who will testify honestly that the IPU has made a real and positive difference in his life; I can on short notice provide you with dozens if not hundreds of individuals who will testify that God through the name of Jesus Christ has made a profound and substantial impact upon their lives. You can clap your hands over your ears and sing "la-la-la-Testimony is not evidence-la-la-la" as loud and as long as you wish, but you are wrong. Testimony is evidence, especially when it comes from multiple corroborating sources.

What we think about "cults" is more problematic; in my opinion they fall into one of two groups. The first consists of individuals who are drawn together by a charismatic leader; usually, when the leader is withdrawn by death or other circumstances the cult falls apart. These are, on the whole, barely worthy of notice. However, there are some cults which appear to be undergirded by some genuine spiritual power. Based upon my knowledge of the Word of God and my experience as a believer, I would identify this source as demonic. "But even if we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel to you than what we have preached to you, let him be accursed." (Galatians 1:8) So I will not dispute the reality of the experiences which those who follow cults and other religions claim; I merely dispute the authenticity of their source. I believe that they have been seduced by an attractive counterfeit. But the admitted existence of counterfeits does not diminish the probability of existence of the genuine article.
 
Again I am somewhat puzzled by your contention that we can have detailed categories describing belief in god in absense of any definition of 'god' whatsoever.

Note that these are not my definitions, but they are the generally accepted ones:

Theism/Atheism (belief in the existance/nonexistance of dieties):
  • Theism: Belief in the existance of at least one diety.
  • Weak Atheism: Lack of a belief in the existance/nonexistance of dieties.
  • Strong Atheism: Belief that no dieties exist.

Gnosticism/Agnosticism (knowledge of the existance/nonexistance of dieties):
  • Gnosticism: Belief that the existance/nonexistance of a diety is known.
  • Agnosticism: Belief that the existance/nonexistance of dieties is unknown.

Somebody who 'doesn't hold a belief one way or the other as to the existance of gods' would not be an atheist at all - by definition. Or an agnostic.

Atheism simply means "not theism" which includes the lack of a belief one way or the other in the existance of gods. Atheism/theism and agnosticism/gnosticism can be combined, for six different beliefs, although a gnostic weak atheist is uncommon.

Sometimes someone will use the word "agnostic" when they mean an "agnostic weak atheist" which is where the confusion sets in. Some people also refer to a strong atheist as simply an "atheist," holding (technically incorrectly) that atheism indicates a positive belief that there are no gods.

A theist can (and usually does) believe that some gods don't exist as long as they believe in at least one god. A weak atheist can also believe that certain gods don't exist while not having a belief one way or the other in the existance of gods in general. A strong athiest believes that no gods exist.

-Bri
 
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Note that these are not my definitions, but they are the generally accepted ones:
On what basis do you say 'generally accepted'? Do you have some source for this?
Theism/Atheism (belief in the existance/nonexistance of dieties):
So by this definition an absence of belief one way or other would not fall into either category, as I said.
Theism: Belief in the existance of at least one diety.
No, strictly speaking the belief in the existence of at least one deity is Deism. Theism generally refers to Deists who believe in an interested Deity.
Gnosticism/Agnosticism (knowledge of the existance/nonexistance of dieties):
  • Gnosticism: Belief that the existance/nonexistance of a diety is known.
  • Agnosticism: Belief that the existance/nonexistance of dieties is unknown.
Actually Gnosticism refers to the occult belief that there is a certain esoteric knowledge available only to Initiates which allows them transcendence.

An Agnostic believes that certain metaphysical truths are unknowable (as opposed to unknown). It does not necessarily have anything to do with God or gods.
A theist can (and usually does) believe that some gods don't exist as long as they believe in at least one god. A weak atheist can also believe that certain gods don't exist while not having a belief one way or the other in the existance of gods in general. A strong athiest believes that no gods exist.
Well no, if you believe in little god N'qing you are not a theist, nor are you if you believe in Lord Crom who cares little for the affairs of men. As I said before, by general usage, theism refers to belief in the existence of an interested (and usually benevolent) creator God.

For example theologists will generally refer to Lucretius and Epicurus as atheists although they believed in gods.
 
Determining the most parsimonious explanation given incomplete evidence is a matter of opinion. The evidence often seems to more clearly point one way or the other, but that doesn't mean that someone else might not consider the other evidence to be more compelling. Without definitive proof, either belief would be based on some degree of faith.
I see your point, but I don't think it's a matter of opinion. What I mean is that while the most parsimonious explanation given incomplete evidence might turn out to neverthess be wrong (which we could only show if new evidence presented itself), there is nevertheless a most parsimonious explanation.
Actually, I think I should qualify that. I can imagine that in some situations there might be multiple explanations that fit the evidence equally well, with equal parsimony. I imagine this is rare, however, and in situations like that the rational course is not to choose one at random, but to admit what the evidence suggests - "I don't know, either one is equally likely".
I think the trouble comes in making that determination. What is the correct methodology?

In practice, it might turn out to be a matter of opinion. But in theory it's determinable. I might make mistakes in looking at what the evidence suggests, but that doesn't mean that it doesn't suggest something.
This is different from saying it's possible to know for certain. Rather I suggest that it's possible to know what the best interpretation of available evidence is. This could mean "Yes", "No", or simply "I don't know".

A better way to look at it is that if we could somehow become perfect unbiased judges of availabe evidence we might say "Based on what I know the God hypothesis has a 99.97% chance of being true." Or "based on what I know the god hypothesis has a 50% chance of being true, thus we cannot say anything one way or the other."

That's an overly simplified way of looking at it. I'm just saying that belief one way or the other doesn't have to be all or nothing. It can be probabalistic. And I do think that it's possible, at least in theory, to determine which way the evidence leans. The problem is in knowing if we've analysed the evidence correctly.

I actually think this is where my disagreement concerning the use of the word faith comes in. You say that we all have faith in those beliefs that we can't be certain of. I think rather that it's possible to say, "I believe this to be true because it is the most likely thing to be true. More correctly I view this statement as having x% chance of being true, and will act accordingly"
Things don't have to be held to be true or false, but we can still answer yes or no questions about our belief in them. Qualified with "but I'm not certain of that."
I think saying that you're not sure about something is the same as saying your belief is probablistic. Of course you also have a belief as to whether that probablistic detmination itself is correct. And this belief could be probablistic as well. And so on. Life is complicated, huh?

Your opinion might be that your viewpoint is more valid than the opposite, but others hold that the opposite viewpoint is more valid. Neither opinion would be irrational given the current evidence (or lack thereof).
I know what you mean. I've always found this to be a very important reason to look critically at things. When arguing with someone, we should realise that they hold their beleifs just as strongly as we hold our own, and there might be a good reason for that.
But that doens't mean that every belief is equally valid. Even if someone did their best to look at the evidence and come to a conclusion (in one sense being completely rational) that doesn't mean that they did so without error.
Of course I can make errors as well. It's difficult to see if I have or not, and that's why it's important to look over your reasoning carefully, and maybe to subject it to the review of others. But in the end I think that it is possible to judge one viewpoint against another. Otherwise I would be rational to believe in ghosts and demons and the sexual powers of rhino horns - not because I've looked at the evidence and come to that conclusion, but because someone else says they did.
Basically, I'm saying that just because someone else holds a belief doesn't mean it's as likely to be true as my own. It does mean, though, that I should analyise it from that perspective (to begin with) in order to see if I'm wrong, or where they made their mistake.

You're the first person I know who believes that Tokyo doesn't exist!
Woops! Bloody grammar!

There are many things that we cannot (currently) explain without God.
Of course there are, but I don't think that God's existence or non-existence changes those explanations at all.
Say for instance there was some irriducibly complex system in biology that scientists simply could not explain. A creationist comes along and says, "Ha, well, that's easy. Goddidit."
The biologist could just as easily say, "Ah, no, although we can't explain it, I would say natural processes did it."
Both are equally good explanations to things that we really have no explanations for. Which is to say they are not explanations at all. Neither tells us anything about, for instance, why it is a certain way. (I think by this I mean more how it came to be that way). Of course if we took either viewpoint and it led to some hypothesis that could have some explanitory power, then that would be a way toward an explanation. But neither is an explanation in itself.
Occam's Razor is also wrong much of the time.
Yep, that's true. Nevertheless it seems to be the best way to judge things that we don't have perfect evidence of.

Your viewpoint is quite reasonable! I'm simply saying that the opposite viewpoint may also be reasonable.
Agreed. So long as those holding that viewpoint came to it by way of reason. I don't claim to be perfect at analysing the evidence, and I may have done so incorrectly. In that case a different analysis would be more correct. Maybe the best position based on available evidence is an agnostic theist's. However, my own analysis says no. And if someone were to tell me that they held that position, but were incapable of arguing it in any way, I would find it unreasonable.
I don't think your viewpoint is unreasonable. I do think that if you had made the same analysis of the evidence as I have and still came to the same conclusion, that would be unreasonable. Which isn't to say that my analysis is better than yours. Just that it leads in a certain dirrection.
If I made the same analysis that you've made and still held my beliefs, that would be unreasonable as well.
Which offers us an opportunity. By looking at each other's analysis we can see if there is any problem with our own. One of the reasons I'm enjoying this discussion. :)

However, if one has a compelling reason to believe otherwise, then I can't say that it's irrational even when the evidence might be slightly against your belief. As an example, if someone believes that the evidence is slightly in favor of no God, but still believes in God because that's how they were raised, I wouldn't necessarily consider this belief to be irrational. This might just be a blurring of what is considered "evidence" though, because a compelling reason might be considered to be evidence.
I agree, in that I think that compelling belief would just be another form of evidence. However, I don't think belief based on how one is raised would qualify, either as a compelling reason, or as evidence, as it doesn't really say anything about god at all.

And, I think that to base one's belief (even if only in a small part) on that would be irrational.

That said, some agnostic weak atheists hold that if the evidence is close, it would be irrational to hold a positive belief either way.

Actually, I think that's a really good point. If I could say "I find the existence of god to be 1% more likely than it's non-existence", I might say, "I believe there is a god."
However, the way that I would live my life, the other opinions I would form, would not take God's existence as a given. Rather they would admit that uncertainty, even try to take into accout that exact degree of uncertainty as much as possible.

Ideally, anyway...

Which brings up the question - should I say I believe one way or the other? What does that phrase mean? It clearly doesn't mean to be certain. So what degree of certainty is enough, then? hmm...
I actually don't think I'd use that if I only very slightly leaned one way or the other, but with a strong leaning I definintely would. Maybe less degree of certainty would cause me to qualify my statements "Yes, I believe there is no god, but I'm not very sure about that." Something like that.
Right now, though, I'm still confident to make the statement, "I believe there is no God." Of course that could change.
 
The other concept is whether God explains anything that cannot be explained otherwise. God does explain a lot of things that science cannot currently explain. Does that mean that God exists? Of course not. It's possible that science will someday explain everything. On the other hand, if God does exist, it is quite possible that science will never explain everything.
Just to say I made a comment concerning this in the above post. I don't think God does explain anything. At least not a God whose existence doesn't look any different to our perspective than it's non-existence.
I don't want to try to rephrase my above statement because I liked it, and all this thinking is numbing my brain.
 
Why could the Christian God not have existed before Christianity? Do you know any Christians who claim that God didn't exist before Christianity?

-Bri

Of course a believer will not claim their god was made up.
I would not expect a Christian to claim their God did not exist before their religion did, but I am not basing my opinion on what Christians tell me about God.
If I did I would be at church every Sunday.
 
On what basis do you say 'generally accepted'? Do you have some source for this?

Yes, I've given you sources in the past. Here are some:

about.com (Atheism vs. Agnosticism)
Wikipedia (Agnosticism)
Wikipedia (Weak Agnosticism)
Wikipedia (Strong Atheism)
Wikipedia (Weak Atheism)
Wikipedia (Agnostic Atheism)
Wikipedia (Theism)
Wikipedia (Agnostic Theism)

So by this definition an absence of belief one way or other would not fall into either category, as I said.

What you quoted was not a definition, it was a heading (the definitions were underneath). Yes "weak atheism" does fall under that heading because it concerns belief in the existance/nonexistance of dieties, specifically a lack of such belief. Just like "atheism" would belong with "theism" under a heading entitled "Belief in gods" even though atheists don't believe in gods.

Atheism is simply the absence of theism, which can mean having no belief one way or the other (weak atheism) or can mean having a belief that there are no gods (strong atheism).

No, strictly speaking the belief in the existence of at least one deity is Deism. Theism generally refers to Deists who believe in an interested Deity.

No, that is incorrect. Deism refers to belief in God through reason, and has become identified with a specific belief that God doesn't interfere with the world. Deism is one form of theism. One can be a theist without being a Deist. More information here.

Actually Gnosticism refers to the occult belief that there is a certain esoteric knowledge available only to Initiates which allows them transcendence.

Yes, you are correct, but you are referring to a different definition of the word. The word "Gnosticism" that you defined is usually written with a capital "G." The word "gnosticism" (contrasting agnosticism) isn't used much, but is useful to clarify for the purposes of discussion whether you believe that the existance/nonexistance of gods is known or unknown.

An Agnostic believes that certain metaphysical truths are unknowable (as opposed to unknown). It does not necessarily have anything to do with God or gods.

Partially correct. You are correct that sometimes the term "agnostic" is used to refer to things other than gods, but we're talking about gods in this thread. In reference to the existance of gods, agnostics believe that the existance/nonexistance of gods is unknown. A so-called "strong agnostic" believes that the existance/nonexistance of gods is unknowable. Few agnostics are strong agnostics.

-Bri
 
I can imagine that in some situations there might be multiple explanations that fit the evidence equally well, with equal parsimony. I imagine this is rare, however, and in situations like that the rational course is not to choose one at random, but to admit what the evidence suggests - "I don't know, either one is equally likely".

Far from rare. Does black licorice taste better than red? Is George W. Bush a good president? Nearly all our beliefs are based on judgements of incomplete and/or imperfect evidence. Even determining that two choices are equal is a matter of opinion. An agnostic might say that it is equally likely that God exists than not, but an atheist or theist might disagree.

I think the trouble comes in making that determination. What is the correct methodology?

This is the crux of the matter. There is no "correct methodology." People can and do interpret evidence in different ways, considering both the quantity and quality of evidence.

In practice, it might turn out to be a matter of opinion. But in theory it's determinable.

If it is opinion in practice, then it is opinion! There is no scientific method that allows one to determine the "correct" opinion.

I might make mistakes in looking at what the evidence suggests, but that doesn't mean that it doesn't suggest something.
This is different from saying it's possible to know for certain.

It is no more possible to know the correct interpretation of available evidence than to know for certain one way or the other.

A better way to look at it is that if we could somehow become perfect unbiased judges of availabe evidence we might say "Based on what I know the God hypothesis has a 99.97% chance of being true."

We can't somehow become perfect unbiased judges.

It can be probabalistic. And I do think that it's possible, at least in theory, to determine which way the evidence leans.

Determining a mathematical formula for calculating the probability is generally impossible. See this thread for an example of someone attempting to calculate the probability that God exists.

The problem is in knowing if we've analysed the evidence correctly.

That is the problem, because we can't know. The analysis itself is a matter of opinion in most cases.

You say that we all have faith in those beliefs that we can't be certain of. I think rather that it's possible to say, "I believe this to be true because it is the most likely thing to be true. More correctly I view this statement as having x% chance of being true, and will act accordingly"

Stating a probability makes it no less a statement of faith--you believe that the statement is true while admitting that it could be false. In fact, you have faith that the higher probability is the true one (which is often not the case).

Things don't have to be held to be true or false, but we can still answer yes or no questions about our belief in them. Qualified with "but I'm not certain of that."

These are known as opinions.

I think saying that you're not sure about something is the same as saying your belief is probablistic.

Yes, although we seldom assign actual numbers, and the probability we do assign is intuitive and therefore opinion.

Of course you also have a belief as to whether that probablistic detmination itself is correct. And this belief could be probablistic as well. And so on. Life is complicated, huh?

Yes! The "correct" formula is a matter of opinion. How you weight one piece of evidence over another is opinion. To include all evidence is impossible, and therefore any formula would only be at best an approximation, the accuracy of which would be opinion.

I know what you mean. I've always found this to be a very important reason to look critically at things. When arguing with someone, we should realise that they hold their beleifs just as strongly as we hold our own, and there might be a good reason for that. But that doens't mean that every belief is equally valid.

True. It is also important to realize that in some cases, the opposing view is also valid, just perhaps not as valid in our opinion (the "in our opinion" part being key). They likely think the same of our belief. This is especially true of things that are untestable.

But in the end I think that it is possible to judge one viewpoint against another. Otherwise I would be rational to believe in ghosts and demons and the sexual powers of rhino horns - not because I've looked at the evidence and come to that conclusion, but because someone else says they did.

A judgement is merely an opinion. We can certainly make a judgement on whether a person is being skeptical, especially when they base a belief entirely on what someone else told them. However, we have confirmed for ourselves little of what we hold to be true. The best we can hope for is to consider the credibility of our sources.

Basically, I'm saying that just because someone else holds a belief doesn't mean it's as likely to be true as my own. It does mean, though, that I should analyise it from that perspective (to begin with) in order to see if I'm wrong, or where they made their mistake.

Yes, that's what skepticism is all about.

Of course there are, but I don't think that God's existence or non-existence changes those explanations at all.

God can explain just about everything.

Say for instance there was some irriducibly complex system in biology that scientists simply could not explain. A creationist comes along and says, "Ha, well, that's easy. Goddidit."
The biologist could just as easily say, "Ah, no, although we can't explain it, I would say natural processes did it."

Both of these are opinions. By the way, most theists believe that "Goddidit" is an equally good explanation for something that can be explained by natural processes since most believe that God created nature.

Yep, that's true. Nevertheless it seems to be the best way to judge things that we don't have perfect evidence of.

Occam's Razor is a pretty good rule of thumb, I'll agree, but only holds for two otherwise equal explanations. Strict causation is simpler than quantum physics, but the latter explains more. In this case, the two explanations are not equal since God arguably explains more than no God. So, your application of Occam's Razor in this case is a judgement call.

Agreed. So long as those holding that viewpoint came to it by way of reason. I don't claim to be perfect at analysing the evidence, and I may have done so incorrectly. In that case a different analysis would be more correct. Maybe the best position based on available evidence is an agnostic theist's. However, my own analysis says no. And if someone were to tell me that they held that position, but were incapable of arguing it in any way, I would find it unreasonable.

The bottom line is that nobody knows. Probably nobody ever will know. Your belief is perfectly sound and valid, as are many other beliefs. One can come to any number of beliefs through an analysis of the evidence, and if there were a "right answer" we wouldn't be having this conversation!

Which offers us an opportunity. By looking at each other's analysis we can see if there is any problem with our own. One of the reasons I'm enjoying this discussion. :)

That is what skepticism is all about.

I agree, in that I think that compelling belief would just be another form of evidence. However, I don't think belief based on how one is raised would qualify, either as a compelling reason, or as evidence, as it doesn't really say anything about god at all.

That's why I chose that particular example. That your parents believed something may not be valid evidence of its truth. On the other hand, you might assume that your parents and their parents and their parents all contributed something to the knowledge that was passed down, and therefore you might consider it evidence. Either way, that your parents believed something is a valid reason, and I will have to disagree in that I cannot say that it is irrational to hold a belief based on valid reasons where the evidence is inconclusive.

And, I think that to base one's belief (even if only in a small part) on that would be irrational.

I wouldn't necessarily characterize someone as irrational for being influenced by how they were raised or by the beliefs of others around them.

Which brings up the question - should I say I believe one way or the other? What does that phrase mean? It clearly doesn't mean to be certain. So what degree of certainty is enough, then? hmm...

To withold all belief for which you don't know for certain (opinions) would be impossible. I personally feel that if your opinion points one way over the other then you should feel free to state your belief (admitting that it is only an opinion if you don't know for certain). If you feel the evidence entirely inconclusive, you would simply say that you don't know and you therefore have no belief.

Right now, though, I'm still confident to make the statement, "I believe there is no God." Of course that could change.

You have obviously come to your conclusion by examining the issue carefully, so I don't think that anyone can say that your statement is irrational. Likewise, I hope that you can agree that it isn't necessarily irrational to examine the available evidence and come to the opposite conclusion.

-Bri
 
Of course a believer will not claim their god was made up.
I would not expect a Christian to claim their God did not exist before their religion did, but I am not basing my opinion on what Christians tell me about God.
If I did I would be at church every Sunday.

In the post to which I was responding, you wrote:

Knowing about the time Christianity started we can say that before that time it did not exist, thus God did not.

On what evidence do you base your statement that God didn't exist before Christianity existed?

-Bri
 
Wikipedia is hardly a good source. I checked the Encyclopedia Brittanica (2002 edition). It has several pages on atheism (Volume 26 Macropedia Religions and Belief, Systems of) and not once does it refer to weak atheism and strong atheism. Neither does James Hasting's Encyclopedia of Religion and Ethics which devotes about 50 pages to the subject of atheism and deals with atheism in various religions such as Islam, Hinduism etc. The Catholic Encyclopedia similarly does not support these terms.

A more reliable online reference might be the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy but again they do not subscribe to the 'weak' and 'strong' nomenclature for Atheism (http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/atheism-agnosticism/#1)

So 'weak atheism' has no general acceptance or generally accepted meaning. The Hastings article is the best but it does not appear to exist online but it supports the idea that through most of history the term 'atheist' (and equivalent terms in various languages) have been a derogatory term used by theists of various types for people that did not subscribe to their particular brand of theism.

The self-identifying atheist appears to be a fairly recent development.
No, that is incorrect. Deism refers to belief in God through reason, and has become identified with a specific belief that God doesn't interfere with the world. Deism is one form of theism. One can be a theist without being a Deist. More information here.
It only goes to show that there is no such thing as a generally accepted definition when it comes to categorisation of belief. Don't make the mistake of assuming the Wikipedia definition is definitive.

In general a theist believes that the creator is known through reason and revelation, the deist that the creator is known through reason alone. (Hence my comment - an interested deity reveals itself, a disinterested deity does not).

So in fact it would be more correct to say that theism is a form of deism. God is a deity but a deity is not necessarily God.
Partially correct. You are correct that sometimes the term "agnostic" is used to refer to things other than gods, but we're talking about gods in this thread. In reference to the existance of gods, agnostics believe that the existance/nonexistance of gods is unknown. A so-called "strong agnostic" believes that the existance/nonexistance of gods is unknowable. Few agnostics are strong agnostics.
Huxley coined the term so we should probably let him have the authoritative definition:
That it is wrong for a man to say he is certain of the objective truth of a proposition unless he can provide evidence which logically justifies that certainty. This is what agnosticism asserts and in my opinion, is all that is essential to agnosticism. ["T H Huxley Agnosticism and Christianity", 1889]
Agnosticism, in fact, is not a creed, but a method, the essence of which lies in the rigorous application of a single principle. ... Positively the principle may be expressed: In matters of the intellect, follow your reason as far as it will take you, without regard to any other consideration. And negatively: In matters of the intellect, do not pretend that conclusions are certain which are not demonstrated or demonstrable.["T H Huxley Agnosticism", 1889]
So I suppose Huxley's definition of an agnostic is someone who is prepared to say 'I don't know' when they don't know. That makes it the only one of these terms that has any actual meaning.
 
Wikipedia is hardly a good source.

It's a good source, but not a perfect source, which is why I cited two sources that support the definitions I provided. I can provide more if you like.

My comments were initially in response to this:

As I have pointed out before, the question of whether someone is a strong or weak atheist depends upon the nature of the theism you are considering.

So far you haven't provided a single source to support your definition of "strong atheism" nor demonstrated that "weak atheism" has no generally accepted meaning. Nor have you shown a source that defines "atheism" to mean anything other than "not theism" which is supported by the fact that most dictionaries list both beliefs (lack of belief in the existance of gods and belief against the existance of gods).

In general a theist believes that the creator is known through reason and revelation, the deist that the creator is known through reason alone. (Hence my comment - an interested deity reveals itself, a disinterested deity does not).

So in fact it would be more correct to say that theism is a form of deism. God is a deity but a deity is not necessarily God.

Again, a reference would be in order here. I cannot find a dictionary that defined theism as anything other than "belief in the existence of a god or gods" which states nothing about how the creator is known. Clearly with this definition, deism is a form of theism.

So I suppose Huxley's definition of an agnostic is someone who is prepared to say 'I don't know' when they don't know. That makes it the only one of these terms that has any actual meaning.

Again, "I don't know" isn't the same as "I cannot know" so agnosticism is the belief that gods are unknown, not the belief that gods are unknowable. The latter would, by definition, also imply that gods are unknown and therefore would be a type of agnosticism (sometimes referred to as "strong agnosticism").

-Bri
 
Well, I for one do not concede that my belief is "irrational and totally faith based;" in its beginning, my faith was based upon the testimony of others in my family and in my church. And as I grew in my faith and learned to walk in the light of God's word, I had experiences of my own which confirmed and strengthened my belief in God. Such as the first time I was fired: The boss called me into his office to tell me that business had dropped off and he was letting me go. Simultaneously and, by human standards, irrationally, I felt a great sense of peace accompanied by the thought that everything was taken care of. When I returned home that very same day, my father greeted me with the news that another company I had put an application in with three months previously had called asking if I was still available and offering me the chance to start immediately at a higher rate of pay. You can scream "coincidence" until you are blue in the face if you like, but I am completely convinced that it was God.

Don't be a baby, "scream 'coincidence'"? Come on, have some respect for yourself and other people who don't believe in God, and don't make us seem hysterical. Heh.

Funnily, if someone believed in a non-Christian deity, that good fortune that you had would be attributed to that persons' belief in that particular deity. Say, a person who believed in FSM. That particular scenario you mentioned, if applied onto this person, would strengthen his belief in FSM. No reason why it should be attributed to one particular deity over another.

So as to what I and fellow believers think about the IPU and FSM: We see them as strawmen of the worst kind. I do not think you can produce even one person who will testify honestly that the IPU has made a real and positive difference in his life; I can on short notice provide you with dozens if not hundreds of individuals who will testify that God through the name of Jesus Christ has made a profound and substantial impact upon their lives. You can clap your hands over your ears and sing "la-la-la-Testimony is not evidence-la-la-la" as loud and as long as you wish, but you are wrong. Testimony is evidence, especially when it comes from multiple corroborating sources.

Ridiculous, if you're thinking that IPU and FSM were created to have a real and positive difference in a person's life -- and I think you mean that in a faith based way. Loving God, feeling happiness etc. You've obviously missed the point of IPU and FSM. What they are essentially asking is, why aren't these possible deities NOT as "valid" as the Christian god?

And say if someone believed in some other, okay, more "valid" deity.. let's say, Buddha. I know that Buddha is not really a deity -- he was human. Buddhism consisted really only of learning the teachings of Buddha and his philosophy (and so theoretically you CAN be Christian and have a streak of Buddhist philosophy). However, time has changed the cultural context of Buddhism and we have many Chinese and other Asians who worship Buddha, and pray for luck, power, safety etc. In other words, in the modern context for the average asian, Buddha serves a role alike the Christian god, without as much communication (constant prayer, sunday church, etc). And all my Buddhist friends who are particularly religious (in the modern Buddhist context) take all the good luck and happenings conferred upon them to be a sign of Buddha's protection.

And so this could be the case for any arbitrary deity X. There is no reason why the Christian God should be singled out as THE source, because while your immediate thought of God as the reason behind your good luck was affected by your environmental upbringing and such, my friends' immediate thought of Buddha was affected by theirs.

And your claim that "Testimony is evidence, especially when it comes from multiple corroborating sources" is even more ridiculous. This "multiple" sources share a HUGE commonality -- that is, they all already HAVE a belief in God. Of course you'll get a certain skewed reaction when you have a biased sample. I'm not being condescending, but PLEASE read up on some statistics before you blow off like that. It's embarassing, especially in the guise of complex wording, will mislead others.
 
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Bri, I don't have much time to respond right now, I'll get to your other points later. :)

Anyway, I just wanted to go into a little more about God being able to explain everything. I think this is a misapplication of the word explain.

God's existence might not contradict anything in the universe, but it doesn't offer an explanation.
What I mean by this is that if you try to say, "This is the way that it is because God made it that way", or "because God wants it to be that way." You aren't really saying anything. You're not offering any more of an explanation than saying "It is this way just because that's the way it is."

It doesn't mean it's not true. It just means that it doesn't explain it. Some things may not have an explanation. Some things may have been created by God, but invoking God to explain why they are that way doesn't tell us anything.
Unless of course we know something about god. Maybe I'm not being that clear with this. I'll try to rephrase later.
 
Anyway, I just wanted to go into a little more about God being able to explain everything. I think this is a misapplication of the word explain.

...

Unless of course we know something about god. Maybe I'm not being that clear with this. I'll try to rephrase later.

Good point. I do understand what you're saying.

God can offer an (incomplete) explanation of such things as consciousness, life, free will, the origins of the universe, etc. that science cannot currently explain very well if at all. That we seem to be more than the sum of our parts is something that science cannot explain except to say that it's possible that we're not actually more than the sum or our parts.

Since most theists claim that it's not possible to fully understand God, then God is at best an incomplete explanation of anything. However, most theists agree that we do know at least some things about God, making God a "better" explanation than none at all. Of course, they don't all agree on what we know about God.

It can certainly be argued that both God and "it's possible that there is no God" are both less than satisfying explanations, but currently they're all we've got. Take your pick, or choose to wait until we have a definitive answer (which could be a long, long time).

-Bri
 
God can offer an (incomplete) explanation of such things as consciousness, life, free will, the origins of the universe, etc. that science cannot currently explain very well if at all. That we seem to be more than the sum of our parts is something that science cannot explain except to say that it's possible that we're not actually more than the sum or our parts.

This is true, that God can explain things like the existence of anything... but in essence, this brings up a bigger problem : What explains God? This is called a shifting of the burden of the problem (not evidence :p). This is where "faith" comes into play, but if things could be resolved by faith in God, faith could equally come into the equation earlier. Just have faith that free will is existent, faith that consciousness is self-generated.. etc etc. Why need explanations at all?

The faith in God model, is I think, something like this:

We need explanations (rational impulse) -> God (faith based)


Why not pull in faith earlier in the equation, since faith "surpasses reason"?

We have explanations (all faith based) - no need for God


Oh well.. just theoretical musing..
 
This is true, that God can explain things like the existence of anything... but in essence, this brings up a bigger problem : What explains God? This is called a shifting of the burden of the problem (not evidence :p).

...

Why not pull in faith earlier in the equation, since faith "surpasses reason"?

We have explanations (all faith based) - no need for God

Oh well.. just theoretical musing..

That's a very good point. I wasn't advocating belief in God, only showing that belief that there are no gods requires faith just as does belief in God. There are many reasons why people believe in God, even though you are exactly correct that belief in God only shifts the problem of lack of explanation to God. Possible reasons:

  1. consolidation -- There is only one thing that is unexplained. One might consider the God conclusion to be based on Occam's Razor in that it could be considered a simpler theory than that there are thousands of things that cannot be explained.

  2. comfort -- Some people prefer the notion of an intelligent God (even if we cannot understand him) running things rather than being at the mercy of randomness/causation as suggested by science.

  3. free will -- Science doesn't explain free will, and the currently accepted theories all indicate that free will doesn't exist. This causes some problems both from the standpoint that people feel as though they have free will, but also from the standpoint that most modern judicial systems assume that we have free will.

I could probably think of others, but those are some possible reasons why one might choose "God" as opposed to "no gods" when there is no definitive evidence one way or the other.

-Bri
 
It's a good source, but not a perfect source, which is why I cited two sources that support the definitions I provided. I can provide more if you like.
Only the Wikipedia source referred to 'weak atheism' and 'strong atheism'. The other one did not mention these terms at all.
So far you haven't provided a single source to support your definition of "strong atheism"
I didn't give a definition for this term, I said it had no generally accepted definition. I am not sure how you think that a source can be provided for ".. no generally accepted definition".
... nor demonstrated that "weak atheism" has no generally accepted meaning.
I think the fact that three long, detailed and scholarly articles on atheism in mainstream, well-regarded publications did not refer to this term even once and the only source you gave was an online encyclopedia with read/write access to each man and his dog pretty much supports my contention.
Nor have you shown a source that defines "atheism" to mean anything other than "not theism" which is supported by the fact that most dictionaries list both beliefs (lack of belief in the existance of gods and belief against the existance of gods).
Actually I gave at least three long, detailed and scholarly and well-regarded sources that define atheism to mean a host of things other than 'not theism' (which is merely a literal translation of the word's Greek roots). They all pointed out that atheism will have different meanings in different theistic contexts.

You just didn't follow them up.

You like Wikipedia? They suggest that the word Theism was coined after the word Atheism, in which case it could hardly mean 'not theism' could it?

Try the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy which pours cold water on the idea that atheism might just have one meaning:
...what we mean by ‘atheism’ will vary according to what in the dialectical situation we count as theism. This brings us naturally to the question of what we might consider to be an adequate concept of God ...
Which is pretty much what I said in the first place:
Robin said:
As I have pointed out before, the question of whether someone is a strong or weak atheist depends upon the nature of the theism you are considering.
None of this means anything unless you first define what you mean by God or god.
Again, a reference would be in order here. I cannot find a dictionary that defined theism as anything other than "belief in the existence of a god or gods" which states nothing about how the creator is known. Clearly with this definition, deism is a form of theism.
How hard did you look?
Again, "I don't know" isn't the same as "I cannot know"
I never said it was.
...so agnosticism is the belief that gods are unknown, not the belief that gods are unknowable.
In fact it is neither - agnosticism is defined in the quote I gave from Huxley, having invented the term I think he might be allowed the last word on its meaning. It is not a belief about god or gods, it is not even a belief but, as Huxley says, a method. My point in quoting Huxley was to show that we were both wrong.
 
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