Dum question but: Why is it not the same?
Very good question, actually, given that it has led to problems in the parapsychology research field.
Short answer for now, because I have a class to get to:
Flipping 10 coins, you expect 5 H, 5 T. But, with only 10 coins, 6, 7, or 8 H is not that rare at all, and 9 or 10, although rare, certainly something you might find if you spent just one day flipping coins.
Flipping 100 coins, you expect 50 H...but it is much more difficult to get the same
percentage of H as in the smaller sample. 60H you might find, but 70 is already very rare, 80 you probably won't find in several days' attempts at flipping 100 coins in a row. 90 or 100 could take you weeks. (Basically, with just 10 flips, you only need to be off by 4 from
a priori probability in order to get 90%; if you flip 100, you need to be off by 40 flips to get the same percentage. A much more difficult task.)
The same discrepancy exists between any 2 sample sizes. If we are trying to demonstrate our ability based on flipping 100 coins, we cannot compare our result simply to .5, or even to the distribution arrived at by flipping 1000 coins a sufficient number of times to generate an empirical sampling distribution (or by mathematically deriving the same sampling distribution, using s/rootN). Rhine's lab originally allowed subjects to end trials when they chose; by always ending after a run of successes, the accumulated data could (if compared to the large-N null probability of the accumulated scores) achieve statistical significance.
Bottom line--compare small runs to small runs, large runs to large runs. A bunch of small runs put together must be compared to the more varied distribution that is appropriate.