Actually, the Catholic Church promoted the rythm method which referred to timing it with the monthly cycle.
Q. What do you call a couple who use the rhythm method?
A. Parents.
[/old joke]
Actually, the Catholic Church promoted the rythm method which referred to timing it with the monthly cycle.
I thought that was the withdrawal method - the man still ejaculates, just not inside the woman. He withdraws just before ejaculation, but with the rape scenario I was referring to any point after the initial penetration.
Actually, the Catholic Church promoted the rythm method which referred to timing it with the monthly cycle.
If this kid had stopped when to, but still ejaculated I don't think this woman would have a legitimate complaint. If he's not built up to the point where he's going to ejaculate no matter what, then he could stop without discomfort.
Lets try another analogy.See my candy jar analogy above.
If this kid had stopped when to, but still ejaculated I don't think this woman would have a legitimate complaint. If he's not built up to the point where he's going to ejaculate no matter what, then he could stop without discomfort.
Which is what a few of us have been attempting to say. This is, imo, the moral line.If this kid had stopped when to, but still ejaculated I don't think this woman would have a legitimate complaint. If he's not built up to the point where he's going to ejaculate no matter what, then he could stop without discomfort.
Ah, that's the distinction I was looking for. If he can't claim discomfort, then it's hard (ahem) to see what his defence is. The 'heat of passion' argument is a poor one in that case.
It should also apply to the rapist, too, then, I suppose.What bugs me is the idea that when someone drinks if they have sex with someone it can be rape of that person, so they are not responsible for their actions. But if intentionally imbibed alcohol can remove responsibility why is there all this fervor about drunk driving, yes it is wrong but they are drunk so why are they responsible for their actions?
No. No pain and no injury.
Extreme discomfort, and I think there exists a "point of no return" which probably varies from male to male and which is likely impossible (or at least impractical) to measure or define.
But "hurt?" Nope.
It should also apply to the rapist, too, then, I suppose.
If both I and the lady get drunk, am I the only one still responsible for my actions?
But it needed be argued that way. It could become one of passive lack of responsibility versus active responsibility.
As the rapist, I am doing something. The lady, arguably, is not.
Mind you, I think that line of reasoning is fraught with huge pitfalls, but it is a possible tack to explain the apparent discrepancy.
Because in the case of drunk driving (or drunk flying, drunken surgery, etc.), being intoxicated is part of the offense. You are free to go in front of the judge and say that you would not have gotten behind the wheel of a car if you were not intoxicated, and the judge might even be sympathetic, but you still got behind the wheel of a car while intoxicated.What bugs me is the idea that when someone drinks if they have sex with someone it can be rape of that person, so they are not responsible for their actions. But if intentionally imbibed alcohol can remove responsibility why is there all this fervor about drunk driving, yes it is wrong but they are drunk so why are they responsible for their actions?
Unless he's really tantric and can dump
his swimmers back into his own bladder
I recall this, and I think it actual went to court. Or at least grand jury, though I could be remembering incorrectly.The situation is two people go to a party get drunk and sleep together, in the morning they think it was a bad idea, I have heard people say that the man raped the woman in this situation, so we get retro active revoking of consent.
That is the case I am argueing. One of consentual but altered mental sex, is that rape? Can it become rape?
Wait. What I meant to say was Yes! Yes it does! Immensely!
Are you busy at the moment?
I'll agree there is no medical condition to which blue balls really refers, but I'll disagree on how easily you dismiss it.I wouldn't even call it discomfort, except in a psychological sense. "Blue balls" is largely a lie -- even if you get to the pre-ejaculatory state where your body releases sperm to mix with the bulk of the ejaculate in the staging area (roughly 30 seconds before normal ejaculation) I wouldn't even call that discomfortable, much less anything extreme or painful.
Nah, unless it's about 5 seconds before ejaculation (in which things are getting started), or during, he should have stopped.
Heh, as I posted that it occured to me that my belief that a man 'must finish' might say more about my ex-boyfriends than I realised![]()