JayUtah
Penultimate Amazing
We cannot have 50 states making 50 different determinations based on 50 different reasons as to why a candidate has/hasn't committed insurrection.
Consider the hypothetical state of Nebrahoma in which a state law allows the secretary of state to remove from the ballot any candidate for federal office that is not qualified under the Constitution. It provides a cause of action for any "elector" (the general term in state law for someone qualified to vote in that state) to bring suit in state court challenging the eligibility for any candidate for federal office.
Now let's say a challenge is made against a candidate for House for residency. The Constitution requires a member of the House to be three years a resident of the district from which elected. In court, there is an inconclusive showing of fact and the court rules that the candidate is not eligible and mandates the secretary of state to remove the name from the ballot. The state's application of a federal qualification for office is proper. Appeal to the U.S. judiciary is possible, but the showing of fact remains largely unchanged.
Now consider the real state of Utah in which the lieutenant governor (our federal election officer) has no discretionary authority to remove any name from a ballot. To apply to run for House, one swears an affidavit of eligibility. But there is no cause of action or remedy, so long as that candidate remains the official nominee of one of our seven recognized political parties, or has amassed enough voter signatures to qualify for an acclamation of candidacy. The candidate may in fact be similarly unable to demonstrate the residency requirement by means of evidence, but in our case no cause of action allows a challenge on those grounds.
In one case a state has exercised discretionary authority over a candidacy for federal office. In other, a state no such discretion is possible. Is the election to House from these states consistent in the meaningful way you outline above?