No, it's not. I have not started with my conclusion and worked from there, I have let the evidence take me where it will. The evidence points to anecdotes being useless, and so the evidence itself precludes anecdotes from being evidence.
Yeah, you know, I think I might have misunderstood you. I have drifted into the broader definition, not the scientific. My apologies.
If you refuse to actually distinguish between what is useful and what is useless, then you make a mockery of the very idea of evidence. By your definition, everything can be considered evidence, and therefore your definition is useless.
Well, first off, not everything can be considered evidence, because things unobserved cannot be used to make a conclusion.
Second, evidence used to make a conclusion stops being evidence for that conclusion when and if that conclusion is invalidated, but it doesn't stop being evidence.
My definition has nothing to do with confirmation bias, and everything to do with a reasoned, logical definition of evidence. While you may wish to class dreams and hallucinations as legitimate forms of evidence, I do not,
It is that word "legitimate" that we are comming to loggerheads about. You and I (and science) have already seen plenty of cases where dreams and hallucinations- or more specifically the content of such- were used to make conclusions that were later invalidated. This is why "in scientific research evidence is accumulated through observations of phenomena that occur in the natural world", of which the content of dreams isn't really a part.
However, if several unrelated people unknown to each other were to report the same dream content, that would still be evidence of something. It won't be (at least, it is extrememly unlikely) that the content of the dream is accurate. Still, it's not a category of experience I think we can dismiss out of hand, even if we think it is likely that they are either playing a hoax, having a trick played on them. It could be a new kind of virus. We dismiss it the woo conclusion (the content of the dream is accurate) when other evidence suggests a better conclusion or invaldates the "woo" explanation.
and contrary to your false post, this has nothing to do with confirmation bias
I see that, it is withdrawn.
and everything to do with being open to where the evidence leads me.
Well, evidence can be led, too. That's why we have scientific standards, classes of misleading, erroneous, and manipulated evidence.
And even then evidence that looks good, looks robust, looks incontorvertable can lead to erroneous conlusions. Look how many paradigms have been hoisted up and torn down- Aristotelian physics, Newtonian Physics, Geocentrism, Lamarckian Evolution... the list goes on.
An unconstrained definition of evidence allows any claim to be made and supported with evidence.
Yes, indeed. Which is why we have science, to validate these claims against other evidence (evidence which includes conclusions supported by other evidence)
For example, I could easily claim that white people are inferior in quality to the other races of the world, and cite as evidence a dream in which god revealed this fact to me. Unless you are willing to discount that my dream is indeed evidence, you are forced to concede that I am perfectly justified in holding this belief!
Only if you are willing to accept that evidence as sufficient and conclusive. Some people do, science does not. This does not mean we have to redifine evidence to exclude the dream. We just need to look at the entirety of the evidence available and we'll see that that one bit of evidence does not countermand the mountains of evidence otherwise. The
conclusion that white people are inferior is invalidated, the evidence is not.
Let's say you write that dream down, present it to a scientist, he invalidates your conclusion, and you go home dejected and file it away. Fifty years later, the guy that buys your house finds it stuck in the back of a broom closet, reads it, comes to a conclusion, and it's evidence again.
In other words, your definition of evidence turns evidence into a worthless concept.
By itself, yeah, it is. That's why science is valuable. As I told skepticgirl earlier in the discussion, if "evidence" were an inherent, imutable property of any object, we wouldn't need science, because the truth would be self-evident. It isn't. Evidence can be misused, misinterpreted, and manipulated. That's why we need science.
Given your definition, evidence is not the sort of thing that one can use to rationally reach a conclusion,
Rationally? Not on its own. That's why we came up with science, to validate and error correct the conclusions.
as everything is evidence, and any conclusion can be reached. Do you really not see the problem with the way you are using this word?
Yeah, I was using the broader definition, which includes all the unscientific evidence.