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Is Randmoness Possible?

Iacchus said:
No, because everything that proceeds from God, is "of" God. This is what gives us the duality we're looking at.
Yes, it does. What you are saying is that effects have the same properties as the cause, which is nonsensical. If, however, you are saying that God imbues the effects (us) with free will, then God is relinquishing some of his own free will and the universe is no longer determinate (using the proper definition of the word), but dependent up individual free will and the interaction thereof.



edited for worms, Roxanne. worms.
 
Upchurch said:
Yes, it does. What you are saying is that effects have the same properties as the cause, which is nonsensical. If, however, you are saying that God imbues the effects (us) with free will, then God is relinquishing some of his own free will and the universe is no longer determinate (using the proper definition of the word), but dependent up individual free will and the interaction thereof.
The consolidation of our efforts are determinate. Our efforts, when in a state of flux, are not.
 
Upchurch,

Is there a particular reason why you hesitate to answer my question concerning spacetime and the relevance with regard to determinism?

ps. I would also like to hear your opinion concerning my last, larger, question. Although infinity tend to lead to nonsense and pure speculation, I don't think that it should be discounted too soon. Math is flooded with it to begin with.
 
Upchurch said:
Again, I must ask you to define determinism. Your usage is nonsensical.
Do you believe in the possibility of free will or not? Obviously you believe in determinism. Whereas if both exist, how do you go about defining their compatibility?
 
JAK said:
Both. The complexity is astronomical. Yet, even if we could get a grip on the complexity, at the lowest level, our attempt to "get a grip on it" alters the structure, alters the system, and alters the outcome. By our own meddling, we change whatever "natural" behavior would occur.

The question was whether or not determinism precludes free will (I'm restating this for my own benefit).

If our "meddling" is deterministic, then the outcome is also predictable. Either way, determinism (that a certain cause will always have the same predictable effect) would preclude us from being able to make free choices because our actions are simply the outcome of prior causes.

Randomness would not be determinism (because a certain cause doesn't always produce the same predictable effect) but nonetheless doesn't offer anything in the way of free will (if our actions are random then they are still beyond our control). So, I still don't see how either determination or randomness can possibly allow for us to have free will.

In astronomy, there is the "two body problem", whereby the motion of two interacting celestial objects can be predicted. And there is the "three body problem" which has escaped modern mathematics in predictability. Even so, in both cases, the celestial bodies are moving according to known laws of physics. Thus, you have "determinism" in that a certain cause (known and predictable laws of physics) have the same predictable effect (on any isolated object). Yet, enough is unknown about physics to explain complex interactions. By escaping prediction, the interactions appear random to some degree.

Admittedly, determinism can be very complex and would preclude us from being able to predict the event in practice. But by its own defintion, determinism is predictable (meaning that it has a finite number of variables, and if we knew all of the variables and how they interacted we could predict the effects with 100% accuracy). And the very fact that it could be predicted means that there is only one single outcome possible, hence no free will.

If I implied that "free will" would cause you to fall apart, forgive me. That is not what I intended to convey.

I'm sure you didn't imply it, but that I misunderstood.

I meant to say that "free will" is the expression of each of us as unique systems. Yet, each of us has an internal system which, though guided by laws of nature, are too complex to understand. Our behaviors, thus, are an expression of our internal make-up. In fact, our internal make-up forces the choices we make.

I think we may be in agreement (if I'm not misunderstanding you), but perhaps differ in symantics. Yes, if everything is determined, we can still perceive that we have free will in the way that you describe. However, we don't actually have free will -- it is only an illusion. Yes, we might "call" it free will, but that doesn't make it so. Free will is an absolute, we either are able to make choices or we're not able to make choices. If the outcome is predictable (as determinism states it must be) then we are not free to choose between different outcomes.

Yes, the system is undoubtedly so complex that we don't know that we don't have choices (otherwise we wouldn't be having this conversation -- unless free will really did exist). But that doesn't change the reality that if determinism is correct, we don't have free will.

Because a multitude of events happen simutaneously within the organism, each event, though deterministic in itself, is only one of many, many influences upon a final decision.

All "influences" (more accurately "causes") are themselves determined, therefore the final outcome is (the effect of those causes) is determined. At no time is there the possibility of a different outcome given all of the causes that influenced that outcome (assuming no randomness). That's the very definition of determinism.

For example, the subconscious mind normally "filters" much infomation such as the feel of your pants against your leg or your hair upon your neck or your sleeves on your arms. This is called "habituation". Nevertheless, all of these points of contact create neural signals which the brain puts into the "soup" of thought along with sight, sounds, tastes, and smells. These myriad perceptions may not be part of a "choice", but they are part of the "soup". Anyone of them may interrupt the decision-making process at any moment. The sensation of movement on your arm may be a bug, and your thoughts are diverted. A sudden smell of natural gas may alert you to a gas leak. A phone may ring. All of your senses are constantly active, but the brain filters out what it considers to be of little importance. What is left goes into consciousness.

So far, I agree. All of these "causes" are internalized in some way in the brain, and "filtered" by the brain. The brain filters are also the results of prior causes and are therefore also determined, and therefore could not be configured in any other way.


Even so, the "filters" are choices made within you - a system. And these choices are not conscious. AND these choices are not made with a conscious act of "free will".

AND these "choices" aren't actually choices at all. They are simply determined by prior causes. Perhaps the problem is our definition of what a "choice" is. By my definition, a choice necessitates that an alternate outcome is possible. If you make the choice to buy gouda, you must also have had the ability to have chosen cheddar if you had wanted to. This is not possible in the scenario you describe, no matter how complex it is.


In essence, your brain pre-determines what is presented to your "free will". Thus, you have already made choices BEFORE your "free will" chooses. Further, if we knew which neural circuits would be involved in your decision, and knew their activation strengths, we could predict which one would eventually "win" the competition in the nRT. Your "free will", would be predictable - because it is systematic and deterministic due to laws of nature.

Your use of the term "free will" here is obviously different than mine, as is your definition of "choice." By most definitions, the "free will" isn't an object that makes choices, but rather an attribute or property of that object (presumably our brains). Free will is simply the ability to make choices that are not (entirely) determined by prior causes. If free will exists, then presumably, the brain (by some unknown mechanism) would be making the choices (i.e. exercizing its free will). If your brain "pre-determines" an outcome based entirely on prior causes, then that outcome isn't a choice at all because no other outcome was possible. Remember that whatever state your brain is in that causes the outcome is also the result of prior causes, therefore the outcome isn't a choice and no other outcome is possible regardless of the complexity of the process. That's precisely why it's considered predictable. But that's not free will.

People might use the term "choice" to say that a computer is "choosing" which branch of a program to follow based on the value of a variable, but that's technically incorrect. My definition of "choice" would require other possible outcomes. A computer following one branch rather than another one isn't making a choice unless the computer could have previously set that variable to some other value. As a computer programmer, I don't believe that my computer has free will, nor do I believe that it makes choices.

Yet, perhaps the strongest indication of determinism is conscious thought - the seat of free-will and decision-making (making choices). As G.A. Miller said, consciousness is the result of thinking - NOT the process of thinking. Within consciousness, visions dance and play. Words form sentences and ideas. But what "chooses" your sentence structure? What places the verbs and nouns in each of your sentences. If you think of a cat, is it sitting, walking, or sleeping? Is it black, mottled, tabby, or some other color? Did you specifically make those choices of how the "cat" will be displayed in your consciousness (free will)? Or were those choices made at some lower level of brain processes and presented into consciousness?? G.A. Miller suggests the latter. Bernard J. Baars suggests the latter. Experimental results suggest the latter. I suggest the latter. Consciousness is the result of thinking, not the process of thinking.

Consequently, conscious free will is the result of thinking, not the process of thinking.

I don't understand your argument here at all, or how it proves that we can have both free will and determinism. Please explain.

-Bri
 
Iacchus said:
What is free will?

The ability to make choices.


and, in order for it to exist, doesn't it stand to reason that it be maintained by determinism?

No? Please explain this tremendous leap of logic.


If free will is the cause, then determinism must be the effect.

No.

-Bri
 
Iacchus said:
If God is the original and only cause, it follows suit that everything be determined by that original and only cause.

Unless God granted humans the gift of free will (choice), as you said you believed.

-Bri
 
Consciousness is the result of thinking, not the process of thinking.
One has to observe, before one can think about what one is observing. And consequently decide, depending upon its immediacy, what or if anything needs to be done about it.
 
No reason. I mostly didn't answer it because I missed it.
quote:
Originally posted by Thomas
That sounds like a book worth, so maybe we shouldn't go there, but I would appreciate it if you would try to explain why the nature of spacetime supports determinism?
There is a really long answer to that question, but I can quickly summarize it like this: Space and time are really one in the same. However, while there is no preferred space direction, there does appear to be a preferred time direction (i.e. from the past to the future). However, if time and space are really the same thing, then there really shouldn't be a preferred time direction. Now speaking ultra-simplistically, if "past events" are fixed and immutable, then "future events" must necessarily also be fixed and immutable.

The alternative is that both the future and the past are not fixed and immutable but, given QM, merely a metaphorical clouds of probability. In other words, there is a certain probability that Washington crossed the Delaware and a certain probability that mankind will walk on the surface of Mars.

Now maybe free will exists and effects how those probability clouds collapse at a particular "present", which indicates that there is something privileged about "now". But, we're talking about back against the wall opinions here and my gut impression leads me to something more like Jan's (Bri's?) Many World version of determinism, where the splits not only happen going forward in time, but backwards too.
 
Iacchus said:
Do you believe in the possibility of free will or not? Obviously you believe in determinism. Whereas if both exist, how do you go about defining their compatibility?
Those are questions, I asked for a definition. Take your time.
 
Bri said:
No? Please explain this tremendous leap of logic.
How can you will the hammer to hit the head of the nail, if it wasn't determined (by the laws of physics) in order for it to do so?
 
On my Onion® desk calendar this morning:

New 'Time' To Keep Everything From Happening At Once
CAMBRIDGE, MA -- On what is now known as "Friday," MIT scientists unveiled "time," a revolutionary new event-sequencing system that organizes phenomena along a four-dimensional axis, preventing everything from taking place simultaneously. "No longer will the extinction of the dinosaurs, the assassination of John F. Kennedy, and the Earth-Xabraxiz Pod Wars all collapse into a single point," theoretical physicist Dr. Lawrence Chang said. "With time, we can now contextualize each of the universe's infinite number of occurrences in its own spatial-temporal plane, creating order where there once was chaos." Added Dr. Erno Toffel: "Using time, one event can be positioned chronologically so as to be the cause of another. For example, a man's death may result in a gun being fired at him. Or the other way around. We're still working out some of the kinks."

I'm out of my depth here, but it seems to me that this is one thing that "Big Bang" cosmologists have in common with Augustine -- the proposition that time, itself, is a property of the physical universe. Any attempt, therefore, to identify a "first cause" within this universe blows up in a divide-by-zero error. Augustine was, of course, willing to place his "first cause" outside of the physical dimensions of space-time in order to resolve the paradox:

And now will I stand, and become firm in Thee, in my mould, Thy truth; nor will I endure the questions of men, who by a penal disease thirst for more than they can contain, and say, "what did God before He made heaven and earth?" Or, "How came it into His mind to make any thing, having never before made any thing?" Give them, O Lord, well to bethink themselves what they say, and to find, that "never" cannot be predicated, when "time" is not. This then that He is said "never to have made"; what else is it to say, than "in 'no have made?" Let them see therefore, that time cannot be without created being, and cease to speak that vanity. May they also be extended towards those things which are before; and understand Thee before all times, the eternal Creator of all times, and that no times be coeternal with Thee, nor any creature, even if there be any creature before all times.

Augustine, Confessions

So, in some circles, since at least as early as 401AD, there's been no debate about the existence/non-existence of a "first cause" or "prime mover" within the realm of the physical universe. One may as well ask, "How old was I before I was born?"
 
Iacchus said:
How can you will the hammer to hit the head of the nail, if it wasn't determined (by the laws of physics) in order for it to do so?
What you describe is causality, not determinism. Do you mean causality or some as-of-yet-undefined form of determinism?

You can call an apple a "frog" all you like, but you can't expect us to know that you really mean "apple".
 
Upchurch said:
What you describe is causality, not determinism. Do you mean causality or some as-of-yet-undefined form of determinism?

You can call an apple a "frog" all you like, but you can't expect us to know that you really mean "apple".
[pointless distraction]
Thank you, Upfunk, you have just neatly sidestepped one of my pet peeves, which is people who say "You're comparing apples to oranges", when they are referring to two things that are very dissimilar. But apples and oranges aren't that dissimilar. They are both fruits, approximately the same size, sweet, contain seeds, grow on trees, have red as a major color componant, etc. So comparing apples to oranges seems like a normal thing to do. Obviously, you can compare any two things, but if you are trying to compare dissimilar objects, you should not use apples-to-oranges as a metaphor.

From this point forward, I shall amend the phrase to "You're comparing apples to frogs."
[/pointless distraction]
 
Tricky said:
[pointless distraction]From this point forward, I shall amend the phrase to "You're comparing apples to frogs."
[/pointless distraction]

You can compare apples and frogs too. They both come in different colors, for example, including green. For that matter, you can compare causality with determinism. That doesn't make them the same, or even similar.

-Bri
 

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