NewtonTrino
Illuminator
- Joined
- Jul 2, 2007
- Messages
- 4,585
Ridiculous, they are only richer than about 99.15% of the world, not 99.80%!
Exactly!
Ridiculous, they are only richer than about 99.15% of the world, not 99.80%!
How? I certainly haven't been able to avoid taxes.
No, the reason for making capital investments is to make money. More money than you already have. The problem is that an investment entails the non-trivial risk of loss of the initial capital, those gains have generally already been taxed once as corporate income taxes, and taxes on capital gains are not indexed to inflation. Investment of capital is so important to economic growth that tax policy (pretty much of necessity) needs to promote it, or at least not provide too large of a disincentive. In a system where all capital gains are treated as normal income but capital losses are ignored, there would essentially be no investment of capital. If you invest in 20 different companies, and half of them were losses and the other half were gainers so that you broke even, under that system you would have to pay full tax rates on all of the gains even though you actually made no money.
Personally, I think if capital gains (net gains) were indexed to inflation, they could be treated as standard income for tax purposes without much economic impact.
I think you have to incorporate, and make sure you have a good accountant. You can reduce your income tax considerably.
Sound fair but I think also of the people who bought Xerox stock and then just waited thrity years. I think they should pay on the profit they make when they sell it, I think the point of sale is the determinant of income.
You bought it for X you get payed Y, that if positive is profit.
But the loss thing, really?
I buy a house and I overpay for it, I sell it at a loss, why should I get to say that compensates for my income and pay less tax?
I'm just picking a bone with where the rates are set. The top marginal rate should be set so that it hits most of the population.
Eat your own dogfood people.
I buy a house and I overpay for it, I sell it at a loss, why should I get to say that compensates for my income and pay less tax?
Meals are only a 50% deduction on income tax.
I pay payroll taxes for all employees.
I pay 1.5% of GROSS with no deductions to the state.
There are no special tax breaks available to me that I or my accountant is aware of (CPA, tax CPA and controller).
At the highest ta bracket, yes.Jeez only 45%, what a bargain!
Making $186,000+ a year after deductions?Sorry but I call BS on this. Define rich.
At the highest ta bracket, yes.
Making $186,000+ a year after deductions?
It seems a decent definition...
/facepalm
Get a better accountant.
How is that rich? I think we have hugely different ideas of what rich is.
How is that rich? How is that not rich? That's the top 5% of incomes. That's enough money to buy a nice house, a nice car, send your kids to nice schools, and have enough left over to enjoy yourself.
I think you have a seriously skewed definition of rich going on.
Rich = smashing your ferrari and abandoning it on the side of the road.
Seriously though, there is a huge gulf between someone making a few $100K a year and someone that has $20M+ in assets. The first I would consider upper middle class, the latter is *rich*.
Uh, okay, we have a semantic problem. I absolutely define rich as having all of what you could possibly need and more.
Then essentially everyone in the United States is "rich".
The things someone needs:
1) food
2) shelter
3) water
4) cowbell
Is this a trick question?Is a Flat Tax Regressive?
Uh huh.
I know there's a segment of America that has had a fetish for the concept that if something isn't so simple a lobotomized monkey could understand it, it's clearly nonsense, but I hope we here on the forums can at least try to move past that. You failed to get past tier 1 of the deficient needs. I clearly was talking about leaving tier 2 in the dust, at the very least.
You seem to have something against the very thread topic, and have been nothing but obstructionist, obstinate, and deliberately non-responsive to other people and the OP. Is there a reason you're this defensive?
Because the discussion we're having is clearly a discussion of biology and the operations of cells and organs. There's no chance that its a discussion of human behavior, governmental philosophy, and economic issues. So obviously it's so appropriate to use the biological definition that not only should you do it, you should post snotty worthless posts criticizing others for not doing it.I just wanted to note that the link is to a theory of psychology, not biology.
Unless you just hijacked Mike's account, no.I'm assuming you are mistaking me for someone else.
Probably every tax scale in existence is regressive with respect to an individual's utility. Since that renders the definition unuseful, it is not the one that applies. With respect to the amount taxed, flat tax is not regressive (it's . . . flat)Flat taxes are regressive, unless you think that money has a constant marginal utility. Since that view is nonsense, flat taxes are regressive.