triadboy said:
The dark ages coincide with the rise of Christianity. Coincidence? I think not.
Does that correlation even exist, though? What does it mean to say that the Dark Ages coincide with the "rise" of Christianity?
First of all, as was already pointed out, to the extent the term "Dark Ages" is still used at all by modern historians, it now usually refers to the period from roughly the collapse of the Roman Empire until the mid-8th or 9th century (
source), during which time the Latin West was subjected to almost continuous waves of barbarian invasions. (Christianity during this period - and the papacy in particular - was not nearly as powerful or influential then as it would later become.)
Also, it is now recognized that that the 12th through 14th centuries witnessed a flowering of European culture not just in terms of art, architecture and education but also many crucial and outstanding accomplishments in science (natural philosophy), mathematics and logic.
I said this in the other thread, but I'll repeat: The influence of the medieval Church is generally regarded as having peaked around the time of the Fourth Lateran Council in 1215. It seems reasonable to allow that the period extending one hundred years before and after the Fourth Lateran Council (
i.e. the early 12th through the early 14th centuries) corresponds to the two centuries during which the Church was most powerful. Yet it was precisely during the Scholastic period that Western Europe caught up with, and overtook, the rest of the world in science-related learning (and, indeed, in intellectual culture generally).
So one could just as easily argue: "The most scientifically productive period of the Middle Ages got underway just as Christianity was at or near the peak of its influence. Coincidence? I think not." I wouldn't make such an argument, of course, because stand-alone arguments like that are weak.