inverse of 0

[LordoftheLeftHand]

Related to this thread http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=1256272#post1256272

If the inverse of 0 is undefined, is the inverse of undefined 0? Or is it not that simple?

LLH

 

[Ducky]

There is no spoon.

 

[Art Vandelay]

The multiplicative inverse of 0 is undefined. The additive inverse of 0 is itself. "Undefined" doesn't mean that there's a number called "undefined", it means "not a number". It's like if someone asked you "What's your child's name?", you said "I don't have child", and they said "So the parent of 'I don't have a child' is you?" If something isn't a number, it doesn't have an inverse. What's the inverse of a watermelon?

There are number systems in which 0 does have a multiplicative inverse, but they are inconsistent with basic axioms of integers.

 

[LordoftheLeftHand]

Ok, thanks for the info!

LLH

 

[DevilsAdvocate]

The multiplicative inverse of 0 is undefined. The additive inverse of 0 is itself. "Undefined" doesn't mean that there's a number called "undefined", it means "not a number". It's like if someone asked you "What's your child's name?", you said "I don't have child", and they said "So the parent of 'I don't have a child' is you?" If something isn't a number, it doesn't have an inverse. What's the inverse of a watermelon?

There are number systems in which 0 does have a multiplicative inverse, but they are inconsistent with basic axioms of integers.

Hey, where were you when we had the Does zero have a value thread going?