As far as I'm aware, and I might be wrong on this. The prohibitions on homosexuality are one of those Old Testament things that is not included in the new covenant, like not eating shellfish or wearing clothes made of two fabrics.
Is that a viable interpretation of the Bible in your eyes?
First, thanx for your calm and decent response. Second, please note that I was not the one bringing this subject into the spotlight and that my post was a response to an accusation
of being a homophobe and of bashing people who choose that lifestyle. I personally don't like to bring up this subject due to the extreme irate reactions which arise. So I try to avoid it since I am not here seeking debate but merely wishing to shed some light on Biblical issues the best I can without trying to stir up severe controversies. That being said, let me answer your question as briefly and as politely as I can.
The moral law was not abolished per se. What was abolished was the punishment required for those sins and the sacrificial requirements related to those specific sins. These can be found in Deuteronomy, which expands on the Ten commandments which are a synopsis. Leviticus also, mentions them as well.
Please take note that if we claim that one serious moral law was abolished and is OK now. then we are obligated to say that all others are OK. That would mean that incest is now OK, theft, murder, cursing at God, disrespecting our parents,idolatry, adultery, fornication etcetera are now all OK.
Which of course they aren't'. They are things which are not to be practiced and we are told not to practice them in both the OT and the New. In short, both Hebrew and Greek scriptures are in accord. Here ius an example:
OT Scriptures:
Deuteronomy 5:18
Neither shalt thou commit adultery.
Proverbs 6:32
But whoso committeth adultery with a woman lacketh understanding: he that doeth it destroyeth his own soul.
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NT Scriptures:
Matthew 5:27
Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery:
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But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
Galatians 5:19
Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,
So there really is no targetting or bashing soely of any particular group. As you can see, heterosexual relations are also included to a certain extent and are limited. However, the Bible is definitely clear both in the OT and the NT that homosexuality is not an approved practice just as it is clear about adultery and all other sexual matters. Is it easy to follow these requirements? No it isn't. That is understood. And that includes for heterosexuals as well.
Example:
I once met a fellow who said he could never be a Christian because he just could not refrain from committing adultery. He continually boasted about how he though being married had women all over the city and even had children by them. In fact, he said he'd prefer death to having to refrain from adultery. But one thing he didn't say-to his credit-he didn't say that what was clearly written wasn't.
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