Kumar said:
First off, I'm a third-year medical student - not yet a doctor - just so we're clear. I'm not trying to antagonize you; I'm simply trying to understand where you're getting lost and/or if you have information that I may not have yet heard of. It is my impression that you are confusing two separate entities here.
Kumar said:
... & looking after diabetic patients, why don't you go & take history from some old patients that if they ever reduced/discontinued medications and experianced a better control provided they are IR type cases as I mentioned.
I think this is the problem. You are describing Type I diabetics and insulin-resistance in the same breath. Again, to the best of my understanding, this does not exist. Type II diabetics, by the nature of their disease, have insulin resistance
if they are overweight, etc. There are complex physiologic reasons why this is the case, and is described (as you also mentioned) as the "metabolic syndrome" or "Syndrome X". I'm not arguing that insulin resistance in Type II diabetes doesn't exist. This is a well understood phenomenon. Some Type II diabetics
do eventually develop beta-islet cell burnout and eventually require insulin. This is called insulin-dependent Type II diabetes, and is more likely what your friend has. These patients can come in with extremely high blood sugars, yet still not develop diabetic ketoacidosis. In fact, I saw a 25-year-old obese female just the other night who fit this description. The incidence of this particular entity is increasing proportionately with the obesity epidemic in the U.S. The solution? Lose weight and exercise.
Now, as far as insulin resistance in a true Type I diabetic goes, I am not aware of this. As I stated above, if you give too much insulin to a Type I diabetic, only two things can happen: (1) they will go into insulin shock, or (2) they will eventually get fat. Again, the latter is a dietary management issue (e.g., the Type I diabetic who insists on eating a pint of ice cream every night and is forced to up their dose of insulin to keep their blood sugar down). This is not a result of "insulin resistance" (like in a Type II diabetic), though. Is the distinction clear? Type I diabetes has a completely different pathophysiology than Type II.
I recognize at this point that you
may simply be trolling. This is okay, and I'm still happy to answer this question for the benefit of anyone else who may be reading this thread. But, until you can provide any additional sources that can - even in the most modest of ways - support what you are saying, I don't think there's any need for me to continue on this thread past this post. Like I said before, if this is a true observation my guess is that either a Type II diabetic has been misclassified as a Type I, or you have stumbled upon some new observation in an age-old and thoroughly studied physiologic process that warrants further investigation. My bet is on the former.
-TT