Not that that's a bad thing, but I just wanted to cogitate out loud about this.
"Science, all science, is founded on the idea, the belief, if you will, that laws that affect A at location X, will also affect B at location Y in the same way. That laws are universal." I was taught this by my science teachers, all of them.
Yet the more I learn about Quantum Physics, the more I become unsure about this. If light behaves like a wave if we look at it one way, as particles if we do the experiment another, how can we say that whatever "laws" that govern light are the same everywhere, when they aren't even apparently the same under different methods of observation.
Indeed, I go on to read that the perceived reality of any person or measuring instrument is limited to that person/instruments perception of reality.
(To form my own crap example, we can trust our minds interpretation of our eyes in most cases, though not under the influence of hallucinogenic drugs, even though both interpretations will seem just as real as the other at the time)
I reason that it is possible for this idea of "universal laws" to still hold true, a perception of reality will always return the same result whatsoever it is looking at for two different locations in the universe.
It is also possible that such laws, if abstractly enough defined, could still define everything in the universe.
It is also very possible I've read this into completely the wrong direction
Thoughts?
"Science, all science, is founded on the idea, the belief, if you will, that laws that affect A at location X, will also affect B at location Y in the same way. That laws are universal." I was taught this by my science teachers, all of them.
Yet the more I learn about Quantum Physics, the more I become unsure about this. If light behaves like a wave if we look at it one way, as particles if we do the experiment another, how can we say that whatever "laws" that govern light are the same everywhere, when they aren't even apparently the same under different methods of observation.
Indeed, I go on to read that the perceived reality of any person or measuring instrument is limited to that person/instruments perception of reality.
(To form my own crap example, we can trust our minds interpretation of our eyes in most cases, though not under the influence of hallucinogenic drugs, even though both interpretations will seem just as real as the other at the time)
I reason that it is possible for this idea of "universal laws" to still hold true, a perception of reality will always return the same result whatsoever it is looking at for two different locations in the universe.
It is also possible that such laws, if abstractly enough defined, could still define everything in the universe.
It is also very possible I've read this into completely the wrong direction
Thoughts?