True, and Newton's first law of motion.
Everyone tends to think I'm some relativity crank.
I'm just following the hypothesis. Newton's first law may not be true to infinity.
Do you have evidence its true to infinity?
We have evidence of red-shifting.
If you'll reread my answer, you'll note that I said nothing about Newton's 1st.
And yes, we have evidence of red-shifting. You explain such red-shifting as evidence that that such light has a different value of c. Or at least you did in your original post. Then we get
Stars? If they're affected by the Hubble flow.
In my model stars and galaxies still have peculiar motion that leads to velocity shifts.
Cosmological redshifts are posited to be their own phenomenon.
Really? I seem to have misunderstood your theory. My recollection goes something like
Redshift is an observed drop in frequency.
Take literally.... redshift would lead to a drop in frequency
I make a hypothesis based on this:
v_photon = c - H * D
It's basically Hubble's Law, but moved to the speed of a photon, instead of the speed of a galaxy.
So, yes, you posit cosmological redshifts as "their own phenomenon" (whatever that means), but now you seem to be contradicting your own theory. I am merely pointing out that light is not "just" a bunch of little bullets which we call photons - in fact it is also a wave phenomenon, and that wave phenomenon has characteristics which are incompatible with your theory.
So, what exactly does "Cosmological redshifts are posited to be their own phenomenon." mean, and why would it exempt your theory from my criticism?
Instead of an objects light cone defined by c, it's defined by c - H * D.
Hubble's constant is built into the light cone.
That's all very well, but "light cone" is not some arcane, inexplicable object. It's a straightforward abstraction useful in discussing relativity, and it depends on the propagation velocity of light. Which in turn depends on the properties of space-time itself - and you would have space lose unique values of those properties.
Light from a star is not an object, just as photons are not independent objects like tiny bullets, each with a serial number which allows it to behave differently from other bullets from other sources. Your theory requires that light from two different stars which are at different distances will behave differently even if their wavelengths are identical - since their "individual" values of c are different, then by your own statement their frequencies will be different.
Do you have any evidence at all that this is true? Any evidence at all? Or is evidence irrelevant to your theory?