Belz...
Fiend God
Not "imagination" the "imaginary."
Same thing. There's no imaginary without people imagining it.
Not "imagination" the "imaginary."
The hand-waving response is actually your style in the considered subject
Moreover, your multiplicity reasoning
Any way, lets address the traditional 0/1 excluded-middle reasoning, as follows:
<snip table>
As can be seen Unity is the substance of the 16 logical connectives between the 2 propositions p and q, which is not bounded p,q or anyone of the 16 logical connectives.
We can use 0/1 tree in order to demonstrate Unity as the substance of Materialism and Idealism
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=10379299&postcount=619.What is multiplicity reasoning, anyway ? You keep saying it but never explain it.
Same thing. There's no imaginary without people imagining it.
So does it exist? I mean, does the imaginary start to exist when people imagine it
or can we imagine things that do not exist?
Exactly Nonpareil, Unity is the substance of mutiplicity (no matter what multiple things are considered), but not vise versa, exactly because Unity is (by its very own nature) not the sum of many things (it is not derived from multiplicity).By the logic presented here, you could substitute literally any two things you wanted into this tree and prove that "unity" is the root of both.
Not at all, one_of_many thing is exactly one_of_multiple things, where Unity (by its very own nature) is not one_of_multiple things.and "one_of_many thing" is a nonsense phrase.
Exactly Nonpareil, Unity is the substance of mutiplicity (no matter what multiple things are considered), but not vise versa, exactly because Unity is (by its very own nature) not the sum of many things (is not derived from multiplicity).
Once again you have pointed out that your reasoning is limited only to multiplicity.I have pointed out that your argument is nonsense.
As a result you can't comprehend one_of_many (or one_of_multiple) thing, exactly like a fish that is surrounded by water but can't comprehend it.and "one_of_many thing" is a nonsense phrase.
... can we imagine things that do not exist?
Yes, we can.
Try again. And this time look also beyond the bound of your multiplicity-only reasoning.Try again. And this time, don't assume that your audience is completely ignorant of computer science and unable to call you out on your nonsense.
So you don't have the guts to air your view in the other thread.
Then somehow, I need to connect these things that do not exist to what we imagine, in order to connect the non-existent to the existent. That is, to show that things which do not exist can influence things that do.
Here's my latest try. I propose that we there are types of imaginings that have rules, so that the rules influence not only what we are capable of imagining, but allow us to do a bit of mental manipulation on those imaginings.
I'm after a structure that says a certain type of non-existent thing has a kind of shape to it, a property bound to that thing which then is carried over into our imaginings and influences them.
Try again. And this time look also beyond the bound of your multiplicity-only reasoning.
So you don't have the guts to air your view in the other thread.
There's nothing else to be said.
The idea isn't even coherent, let alone supported by any sort of evidence. It's the same issue that idealism and neutral monism have. They are defined only in the loosest sense, and that definition collapses the minute you begin to look deeper. What exactly is this "higher plane" where mathematical entities, void somehow of all other characteristics other than the fact that they are mathematical entities, exist? How do we interact with it? How does it impose itself upon our world?
You don't just get to wave a hand and say "magic", then complain when someone dismisses your idea. If you support mathematical realism, then give us a reason to consider it.
So does it exist? I mean, does the imaginary start to exist when people imagine it, or can we imagine things that do not exist?
I gave yu reasons
and your argument isn't with me but with all the mathematicians that believe in it:
"Mathematical platonism enjoys widespread support and is frequently considered the default metaphysical position with respect to mathematics."
Just like the fine-tuning thread, we come to a point where the consensus opinion of authorities is discarded
No. You gave me assertions.
They are not equivalent.
Popularity is not a defense when the entire philosophy is demonstrably incoherent and lacks all evidential support. Especially when this argument is not mathematical. The fact that mathematicians support it is irrelevant.
The area they are experts in is not equivalent to the one being discussed.
Stop trying to pretend that it is.
EDIT: For the record, I actually agree with Fudbucker, generally speaking, about the fine tuning thread being an absolute train wreck because people are spouting off about things they don't understand and ignoring the relevant authorities. I won't say I agree with everything he says in it, but on that point we have consensus. I refrain from posting there because I am not an expert, and I have read enough of Hawking's work on the subject to know that it is completely out of my league, and the thread is a complete Charlie Foxtrot as is.
However.
In this case, the field being examined is not math. It does not take an expert mathematician to dismiss a claim about a magical realm of "pure" triangles. There is no evidence presented. The claim as it stands is incoherent. The arguments put forth in its favor all fall flat because they end up making an unwarranted leap from "mathematics is objective" to "magic triangles".
You don't have to be a mathematician to see the problem here.
So you're honestly attempting to prove that, somewhere out there, in some sense, there exists a real Death Star, which is the reason that George Lucas came up with the fictional one for his movies?
Honest question.
Your replyThis remains incoherent.
clearly demonstrates once again, that you still try to comprehend my Neutral monist model of Unity by using municipality-only reasoning (that is exactly the context that is used by you here), which wrongly comprehends Unity as one_of_many thing.He then slaps on three terms that don't really make sense in the context unless taken in the loosest way possible (but which look very impressive, dontcherknow) and claims he's proven something.
So you still don't have a definition, then.
Since multiplicity is derived from Unity, but not vise versa, Unity is defined only in terms of analogy, whether this analogy is words or a given diagram.
Since your reasoning is limited only to multiplicity, it does not have the needed abstraction in order to comprehend what Unity is.
Ho, yes you care to use other posters' replies about the other thread (and this time by using small letters)On the contrary. I just don't care to.
exactly because you don't have the guts to do it by yourself.