From what I know, many early religions involved multiple deities. But then it seems that in what we now call the West and the Middle East, a very definite change toward monotheism occurred. What brought that on? Was there some functional reason? Did someone decide it worked better? What was the impetus to discredit polytheism?
I know a little bit about how it came to dominate Roman thought, but the changes I'm thinking of occurred earlier than that.
From what I know, many early religions involved multiple deities. But then it seems that in what we now call the West and the Middle East, a very definite change toward monotheism occurred. What brought that on? Was there some functional reason? Did someone decide it worked better? What was the impetus to discredit polytheism?
I know a little bit about how it came to dominate Roman thought, but the changes I'm thinking of occurred earlier than that.
Um...I'm pretty sure smartcooky meant New Testament and just mistyped.
"Mughira b. Shu'ba reported:
When I came to Najran, they (the Christians of Najran) asked me: You read 'O sister of Harun' (i. e. Hadrat Maryam) in the Qur'an, whereas Moses was born much before Jesus. When I came back to Allah's Messenger I asked him about that, whereupon he said: The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostles and pious persons who had gone before them." - Sahih Muslim 2135/25:5326
EDIT: That is, Muslims have been aware of that particular accusation, per at least mainstream Sunni tradition, since the time of Muhammad, and believe that Muhammad himself addressed it.
I'm not sure.EDIT: That is, Muslims have been aware of that particular accusation, per at least mainstream Sunni tradition, since the time of Muhammad, and believe that Muhammad himself addressed it.
Aaron was of course Moses' brother. Of course, if Jesus had a mother of that name, true it is that she must have been named after Moses' sister, but it was common practice to name children after Scriptural characters at that time as noted in Sahih Muslim 2135/25:5326 cited by you. Jesus himself was named after Moses' successor Joshua son of Nun, and we are told he had brothers named Jacob, Joses and Simeon.At length she brought (the babe) to her people, carrying him (in her arms), They said: "O Mary! Truly a strange thing has thou brought! "O sister of Aaron, thy father was not a man of evil, nor your mother a woman unchaste!" -- Sura 19:27-28
I haven't studied the matter closely, but the recent Dead Sea Scrolls museum exhibit stated that most ancient homes in Israel have artifacts associated with pagan worship. Also, the Old Testament in my opinion can be read as a document written by monotheist hardliners in a society where most people were polytheists. Most of the kings seem to have carried out some sort of pagan worship, and got criticized for it.
Also, her family is named in the Quran as “Imran” Chapter 3…. Is this the Arabic for Levites?? It is not synonymous even with allowance for language phonetic variations??? Also Aaron in the Quran is called Haron so not close either???
However, it is an apologetic that made me pause for thought.... I am inclined to accept it IF someone can explain why sister not daughter is used and what is the Arabic equivalent of Levite.
I'm not sure.
"Imran" is the Arabic version of Amram, the father of Harun (Aaron) and Maryam (Mary). This is the same genealogy for both Mary the sister of Moses and Mary the mother of Jesus. The differences in the genealogies are in who was Amram's father - Mathan was the father of the Amran who fathered the mother of Jesus, while Yishar (sometime spelled Izhar) was the father of the Amran who fathered the sister of Moses (though in the Torah, Yishar and Amran were brothers, not father and son).
Haroun/Aaron was a Levite, so anyone "in the line of Aaron" would be a Levite (kohanim are required to be of direct patrilineal descent from Aaron).
Due to the identical names and the rather vague explanation in the hadith quoted above, there were some that claimed that there was only one Amram and Maryam, not two, and that the mother of Jesus was indeed the sister of Moses. The famous 14th Century historian Ibn Kathir called such traditions "nonsense, a serious error", and 12th Century Persian scholar al-Zamakhshari pointed out that the Qur'an's story of Zakariyah/Zechariah being Maryam the mother of Jesus' guardian is enough to show that the sister of Moses and the mother of Jesus were two different people, since unlike the multiple Amrams and Maryams, there was only one Zakariyah, and he lived at the time of Jesus' mother, not Moses' sister, since he was the father of Yahya (John the Baptist).
As for the whole "sister of Aaron" thing, both Ibn Kathir and al-Zamakhshari explain it as the "sister of/brother of" appellation being used to describe tribal descendants (an explanation also found in the 8th Century Tafsir Muqatil, the oldest surviving complete tafsir): "Ali bin Abi Talhah and As-Suddi both said, 'It was said to her, يَا أُخْتَ هَارُونَ (O sister of Harun!), referring to the brother of Musa, because she was of his descendants. This is similar to the saying, `O brother of Tamim,' to one who is from the Tamimi tribe, and `O brother of Mudar,' to one who is from the Mudari tribe. It has also been said that she was related to a righteous man among them whose name was Harun and she was comparable to him in her abstinence and worship." (Tafsir Ibn Kathir)
Thanks A'isha....excellent.... this makes a lot of sense especially given the Arabic trend of calling people "brother of" to mean "from the same tribe of" and also given the Christian folklore that Mary was a Levite.
Thanks for the explanation of Imran.... yes that makes linguistic sense too.
So I accept the explanation that rather than being an error it in fact shows how knowledgeable Muhammad was of canonic as well apocryphal Christian Lore as well as of the Jewish lore.
I don't know that I'd go that far (at least, not attributing everything to the direct knowledge of a historical Muhammad). Yes, it's pretty obvious that the Qur'an draws rather heavily from early Christian traditions that are now considered apocryphal, but how much of that is due to the milieu in which the corpus of the Qur'an was identified and assembled and how much to a historical Muhammad's direct knowledge is kind of up in the air.
And at the very least, the traditions were confusing and contentious enough to have been used in contemporary Christian polemics against Islam, and for important historians and mufassir to have to address these issues over the centuries.
Contemporary 'polemics' against Islam are not a peculiarly Christian undertaking. You didn't say they were, but you have introduced a distinction among critics without explaining what you believe follows from that distinction. It is reasonable to seek your clarification.And at the very least, the traditions were confusing and contentious enough to have been used in contemporary Christian polemics against Islam, ...
No religion today is TRULY monotheistic.
@ OP
In fact the Tanakh is far from being Monotheistic. It is Henotheistic. There are numerous verses to prove it (see some listed below).
Essentially, what is the difference between Hermes, messenger of the gods, to any of the various angels in the monotheistic religions?
One thing I've noticed is that in religions called polytheist the individual divine being follow their own agenda and work at cross-purposes. In monotheistic religions you get maybe one overt act of rebellion which leads to banishment and a clear break.
Satan aside, no Christian angel is going to give God the same headaches that, say, Mercury gave Zeus.
.Hello?