The answer to your question here should be obvious as I had explained what I mean when I say psychology in post #109. A person with a decent reading comprehension should be able to understand this immediately after reading post 109. Now don't understand me wrong, I'm sure you have a good reading comprehension it's just that you argue for the sake of argument so you appear as if not understanding this.
My point #2 was to say that psychology as I mean it or to make it first grade clear that clinical psychology is done in scientific ways. The source was to show where:
came from.
You are so close... do you understand that your source in #2 is defining a different "psychology" than you specified in #1? This is why your claim to have "explained what [you] mean when you say psychology" is subject to challenge. If you have explained what you mean, why then do you quote a definition by someone who does not use it as you do?
It's not methodology which matters. It is also very important of course but not the criteria that is most important. Repeatability of experiments or better yet theoretical experiments is even more important. If I say that I have discovered some amazing new type of radiation (N-Rays maybe?) but no one can repeat this and verify it then no matter how methodological I have been, my data will become useless as it could have been generated with bias (sounds familiar doesn't it?).
Remember, some 300 papers on N-rays were published; roughly 100 researchers claimed to have observed them. Only when a tighter methodology and double-blind testing were applied did it become apparent that they were an artifact.
Physics as an exact science is a description of the fundamental laws of nature associated with this field.
And it is your assertion that these fundamental laws can be known perfectly? (I am asking--I do not wish to put words in your mouth.) Did you look at the "Knowledge or Certainty" stuff?
Why do I need to provide a 'real world' experiment? In theoretical experiments all the data are known and their results are repeatable anywhere anytime. Do I really need to provide papers for this? It is written everywhere. Here is one for example where an FDTD numerical technique (Finite Difference Time Domain) can predict in 100% accuracy the wave propagation through a double negative media.
http://ceta-p5.mit.edu/metamaterials/papers/external/2003/ziolkowski_pre_2003.pdf
To answer your initial question--because you are comparing to "real world" psychological experiments. It would not be fair to compare theory on one hand to practice on the other.
Its conclusions (if correct (and they are correct)) are absolute like for example that causality is maintained in DNG media only if it is dispersive. This will always be true no matter where you do the test or when. this is a good example of exact science in action. Can psychoanalysis do that?
I need your help reading your linked paper. On page 5 (lower left), I read "
Inserting the proposed solution (22) into Eqs. (12), one finds that id does not exactly solve them. The defects in this proposed solution occur as [delta]-function contributions at t = t0 and t = t0 + T. Similarly, inserting the proposed solution (23) into Eqs (12), one finds that it also is not an exact solution and its failings as an exact solution occur as defects proportional to the derivatives of the turn-on and turn-off portions of the envelope function g. Note, however, that the CW portions of both of these proposed solutions do satsify the Maxwell equations. Consequently, since the defects are highly localized, we will take Eqs. (22) and (23) as approximate solutions for the DNG case." Figures 11 and 12 present differences between predicted result and approximate analytical solution as well. Is this a case of "the theory is right, but the observations are fuzzy", or "the theory is right--it is reality that has it wrong", or what? (I absolutely acknowledge the distinct possibility that I am misunderstanding the paper.)
Oh, and no, psychoanalysis cannot do that. Not even close. Heck, Terrence Hines has chapters in his "pseudoscience and the paranormal" book attacking psychoanalysis as pseudoscience.
Again with the terms. Terms are very very important indeed escpecially after I have clarified them a thousand times.
But so far, only have used "psychoanalysis" where it was proper a grand total of once. And gotten a straight answer when you did.
o.k. I have nothing new to add so I'll stop here.