Yahzi:
It is hard to debate with you because you erect so many distracting strawmen. I really don't want to spend my time striking them down.
But I will try to respond to your post, so others can see what's going on.
Yahzi wrote:
In the absence of any contrary evidence, the skeptic takes homosexuals at their word.
There is contrary evidence and it is anecdotal as well. There are many ex-homosexuals who say it was a lifestyle. Why not take them at their word too?
Many homosexuals report homosexual feelings at ages that they cannot possibly be responsible for, like 4.
Do they report this at 4? Link please.
Given the complete lack of evidence against this, why wouldn't we just believe them?
You are wrong, anecdotal evidence goes both ways. That is the problems. Maybe, you need to here, the other side too. Wouldn't that be fair?
Being a skeptic does not mean assuming everyone who holds a position you don't like is lying.
Aside from the huge strawman. This is a false dichotomy. I certain most are convinced that there is a genetic component. That does not mean there is.
In every other emotional area, personal testimony is considered acceptable.
Yes, of course but never conclusive or sufficient to take a scientific position. Or are we allowed double standards?
Homosexuality is the only area in which you are required to ignore the testimony of homosexuals about what homosexuality feels like.
Another strawman here. No, not ignore, just not sufficient to come to a default position.
We are approaching this objectively. You just don't like the answer.
Assuming things??? Strawman??? No, I don't think you are being objective.
How so clearly? Can you name a single test, study, or expierement that convinced you? Seriously, how can you be so certain that left-handess is genetic - in the absence of any scientific reference on your part - and yet be so certain that homosexuality isn't? Doesn't this reflect a prejudice on your part?
No it does not. Yes, I can be quite certain left-handess is genetic? 100%. Please, this should be obvious to you. If I were to choose randomly 100 6 yr olds. I could, with dexterity tests predict with 100% accuracy who is right or left-handed.
I have three daughters. My twins are 10 months old. I know, from simple observation that they are both right-handed. My oldest daughter is too and, by age 1, I knew she was.
Do you have any idea how obvious this trait is?
In Latin American countries, soccer is the preffered sport (I understand it is also the most popular among kids in the US). Just watch any toddle kick a ball. After any number of kicks, you will know if he/she is left-handed.
Really? And how would you do this? By interviewing people and asking them which hand they prefered using? Or perhaps you would test them - perhaps you would assign them unusual tasks and see which hand they performed better with. But again that would be trusting them not to fake their own response.
It is very easy to test for the trait, specially and conclusively among toddlers. They can't fake left-handess.
No, unusual tasks necessary either.
Yet if we offer you exactly the same evidence for homosexuality, you call it ancedotal.
No, that is it point. I'm not aware of such tests for homosexuality. The test I'm talking about cease to be anecdotal.
Do you see how it is impossible to prove that homosexuality is as genetic as left-handedness once you decide that the amount of proof required is different?
You are wrong, left-handedness can be tested without anecdotal evidence.
FYI, people have done studies that show that homosexuals experience the same kind of arousal when shown pictures of the same sex that heterosexuals experience when shown pictures of the opposite sex.
Yes, but this test does not show there is a genetic component. Actually, it could show that males are suceptible to this type of conditioning.
Why does it matter? Even if it were purely a matter of choice (which it is not, at least for most people), why would it matter?
Why do topics like this matter? Something calle the truth, maybe.
I wont comment on the rest of your post...
Dancing David wrote:
In short no, there wouldn't be an ethical way to devise a test.
You got a point there. Totally different from testing for left-handness
Ok, so if we are stuck with anecdotal evidence and they go both ways. Why would the default position be that there is a genetic component? Why not the opposite?