HansMustermann
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Mar 2, 2009
- Messages
- 23,741
There is absolutely zero proof that a person called Jesus, as described in the NT, actually existed. There are no contemporaneous writings that refer to him or any of the people around him, even though there are historical writings referring to other actors in the narrative, e.g. Herod & Pilate. Not only does everything written about Jesus come decades after his alleged death, most of those accounts conflict with each other anyway.
Also, it is worth noting that the "divinity" of the Jesus character wasn't even determined until long after his alleged death. The NT is written today in such a way as to infer his divinity was contemporaneously understood, but it was not. In fact, his divinity was decided some 300 years afterwards (at the First Council of Nicea) whereupon the biblical accounts were subjected to a bunch of historical revisionism. The Gnostic Gospels (among others) were removed because Gnosticism held and taught that the key to eternal life was through personal spirituality, not orthodoxy and the teachings of ecclesiastical authority - in other words, you didn't need the Church or the Bishops in order to reach everlasting bliss in the afterlife. From the Gnostic viewpoint, salvation came from direct knowledge of the supreme divinity, not through repentance of sin, but through enlightenment.
Of course the Church wasn't having any of this because if people could achieve salvation themselves, without the involvement of the Church, it would put serious dent in the Church's viability as a money-making exercise, and put a whole lot of clergymen out of a job. Any and all references showing that believers could attain salvation without the Church were excised from the bible, effectively giving the Church a monopoly on the afterlife and eternal salvation.
That isn't 100% accurate. We can trace the mainstream dogma to at least the time of Irenaeus, though it's probably even earlier than that, and some of it was there all the way back to the time of Papias. Very little was actually decided at the First Council Of Nicaea (and subsequent one of Constantinople), and most of it was deciding which of the existing ideas to go with, rather than inventing any new ones. (Contrary to what Dan Brown would have you believe.) And even then it mostly just reaffirmed what the cartel that would become the RCC had already long decided on.
Also, there is no indication that they actually removed anything from the bible. Or not from the parts that really mattered. There still was some debate around as to whether some obscure epistle should be included or not, but that was about it. The Gospels and main epistles were already pretty much set in stone for more than 150 years at that point. (Again, contrary to what Dan Brown would have you believe.)
What you CAN say is that there was no CONSENSUS, and you'd be right too. In fact there were a bewildering number of other interpretations around. Just Irenaeus gives us an endless list of such, and he's not the only one. In fact, compiling and arguing against all heresies one could find was a bit of a passtime of early Xians.
But what I'm saying is that the First Council Of Nicaea didn't really have almost anything to do with that. It's just that when Irenaeus managed to get 4 churches (each favouring one gospel) to unite, the resulting cartel pretty much bowled all the others over. Especially after it got imperial support. And yes, they had already long decided that Gnosticism isn't part of that canon. At Nicaea and Constantinople they didn't really decide much more than, basically, "yep, we're right, and everyone else sucks."
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