No matter how many times you assert that, it doesn't make it true. It doesn't matter how much of the NT is made up, it still doesn't prove that a historical Jesus didn't exist.
Just merely "asserting" it, does not "prove" Jesus did not exist. But there are two problems with what you say there ... (1) dejudge is not just asserting it, he's given a vast mass of checkable references to support his interpretation of the Jesus stories. But also others here have been pointing out for years that wherever we have been able to check to see if the biblical stories of Jesus are true, it has always turned out that they are not true! And that's the most that it's ever possible to do if something or someone does not exist; i.e. all you can ever do is to show that the claims of their existence are repeatedly and constantly false and with not even one claim/story ever supported in any credible way at all ... and that is exactly what has now been done.
And then (2) - it's absolutely impossible to literally prove anything in this universe, and especially not in ancient history. So when you say that dejudge does not "prove" his case, that is a worthless argument against him, because none of us can prove anything at all (we can't even prove Quantum theory or Relativity, or even Evolution if it comes to that).
Before you can dismiss it entirely, you have to explain why the NT authors felt it necessary to invent a story about a man, and then retrofit godly powers onto him (as is clear from an unbiased reading of the NT). The obvious reason is that they didn't invent him, because the tradition already existed - IOW their predecessors also believed Jesus was the founder of Christianty. Why? Because he (or someone) almost certainly was.
It's by no means clear that the NT authors started out describing a "Man" (ie a human person). If anything, the entire opposite is true. E.g., Pauls letters are universally claimed by bible scholars and others to be the earliest mention of Jesus. And there the author "Paul" makes very clear that the Jesus figure which he knows, was obtained by him as a divine revelation from ancient "scripture" ... and where he also makes clear that neither he nor anyone else had ever known Jesus except as a figure of fanatical belief evidenced as a spiritual vision in the heavens.
I think your big mistake is in not understanding the culture of the times. If anyone today insisted their church was started by a god in human form, and wrote a book about him that was full of supernatural nonsense, we would rightly scoff. But back then, in that society, it was expected. That is why the NT authors (and those before them) would have gone to such lengths to make the real leader out to be more than he was.
The fact that anyone today would dismiss such a story, is ultra clear evidence that the Jesus stories were an invention. And the key point there is that in biblical times people did not realise that such stories were mythical inventions ... in the 1st century they actually all believed that miracles, gods, demons, angels etc. were very frequent occurrences upon the Earth.
If you want to convince us that the NT authors made up Jesus out of whole cloth, you need more than just a lack of evidence for his existence outside the NT. You need to show evidence that they did not base their writings on any earlier tradition, or you need to provide a reasonable explanation for why they had to make it up.
The term "out of whole cloth" is completely misleading everyone here. The suggestion from most HJ sceptics is NOT that some individual decided one day to completely invent a story of his own to claim a messiah. The explanation, which I have given here countless times already, is that everyone in that region was absolutely certain that a messiah would come to the people, because that was Gods own promise in divine OT scripture. So all that was needed was for someone like Paul to decide that he had suddenly been granted a revelation from God that told him the true meaning of the coded messiah prophecies in ancient "scripture" ... and that is exactly what Paul's letters repeatedly say, in fact he insists upon it! ...
... Paul's' letters are telling the reader that Gods promised saviour-Messiah (who was by then about 600 years overdue!), had indeed been sent to Earth at some unknown time in the past ... Paul did not know any such person, and he tells us that very explicitly ... he is also very explicit in saying he got that messiah understanding/belief "from no Man"; he got it entirely from his sudden new understanding of scripture. The only "new" thing that Paul or someone else (we do not know who) added that was very slightly new or different was the name "Jesus" ... but of course Paul would not have called the messiah "Jesus" at that date anyway ... if he was writing in ancient Hebrew then the Messiah would have been called Yehoshua or Joshua, or in the Greek writing of the time it would have been "Iesous" ...
... so you might ask why Paul chose the name "Yehosua/Iesous"? But there are two fairly obvious reasons which might explain that - (1) without looking it up again, in his book "On The Historicity of Jesus" Richard Carrier claims that Paul could actually find that same name attributed to the Messiah in some parts of ancient OT scripture (I don't know if Carrier is correct about that, but the book did pass Peer Review). See also the wiki link below regarding Theophoric Names, which also mentions numerous OT uses and Dead Sea scroll use of the name Joshua or it's variations for all sorts of supposedly holy leaders. But also (2) Yehosha is not a normal name. Instead its a what's called a "Theophoric" word that represents a vocal cry or appeal to the heavenly God, which is roughly interpreted to mean something like "he saves us".
OK, I've written much of that from memory, without specifically re-checking; so you need to check the above, but you will find that is at least a plausible genuine description/possibility both on what Carrier has in his book and what I've just said about theophoric names and the nature of the name or “word” “Yehoshua” (but actually, I did just check that before posting this … see here https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yeshua )
But if you just keep harping on about "the obvious lies in the NT prove that Jesus never existed" then you are going to look a fool if some evidence turns up. It wouldn't be the first time that a myth turned out to have some basis in fact.
Would it actually matter if someone is wrong on the internet??
It's really not possible to literally “prove” anything, let alone trying to “prove” such a massive negative as the non-existence of Jesus.
The best that anyone can ever hope to do is to produce strong clear evidence showing that the Jesus stories were invented. And that's been done in abundance ever since modern science slowly educated the world to understand that the miracles and superstitions of 2000 yeas ago (which everyone did believe in at the time), are really not credible any more. That's the most evidence that it would ever be possible to discover against the reality of Jesus – i.e., we have now found that the stories were invented religious myth-making. And we have also found that the gospel writers (particularly g.Mark and g.Mathew) were using OT scripture as a source for creating mythical stories of Jesus. And furthermore, in the letters attributed to “Paul”, the author repeatedly insists that the beliefs which he has obtained about Jesus “came from no Man. Nor was I taught it by anyone” but instead he repeatedly reminds his readers that it was all “according to scripture” … and he found that out because in a blinding revelation from God he said “God was pleased to reveal his Son in me”. So “Paul” was even directly telling everyone that he too was getting his beliefs from ancient “scripture”.
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