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Historical Jesus

wert,

I've just read this thread all the way through, where does Cleopatra say that longevity counts as evidence for a religion as being true?

I can't find it. I can see where she claims it is evidence of the religion being satisfying to many people. I can see where she claims longevity would mean that the creators deserve admiration for their creation if the religion is not true, as well.

posted by Cleopatra
So, talking about the historical Jesus in the Christian terms is kind of ridiculous but it's very difficult to dismiss the idea that somebody existed indeed. Even if nobody existed we must feel nothing but admiration for those who built Christianity. From all the theories I know it's the only one who survives for 2000 years now.

I assume you were responding to this quote... but your response doesn't make sense then. You responded
Longevity isn't evidence of anything but longevity. To read anything else into "well it's been around a long time" is just silly.

That is a fair statement, to be sure. But where did she claim this?

Later you even say
From your statements, it's obvious you feel that popularity of a belief is a strong harbinger for the credibility of said belief.

Obvious? Hardly! I can't even find it :D

But since you think it is obvious, can you quote her post that makes it 'obvious'?

Adam
 
slimshady2357 said:
I can't find it. I can see where she claims it is evidence of the religion being satisfying to many people. I can see where she claims longevity would mean that the creators deserve admiration for their creation if the religion is not true, as well.
If longevity doesn't lend credence to a logically valid point, then why bring it up in the first place?

I guess we'll have to agree to disagree here.

Pray tell, how does the popularity of x-ianity have anything to do with the historical Jesus. (which was the topic the last time I checked)

But since you think it is obvious, can you quote her post that makes it 'obvious'?

Adam

Even if nobody existed we must feel nothing but admiration for those who built Christianity. From all the theories I know it's the only one who survives for 2000 years now.

And why must we admire those who built x-ianity? Because of its longevity? because it gives comfort to many? The rational implication is that she is equating longevity with being admirable. For example.

Slavery has been around for a long long time (and can be argued to have given pleasure to many). Should we also refer to it as "admirable" merely because it's been around so long? Must we admire (or lend any credence to) any institution merely because of it's durability?

I would say her "logic" is suspect, but I've yet to see her actually use any logic. Unless you want to count her continued use of fallacies (Straw men, ad-hominen, appeals to popularity, etc.)

But of course, per Cleopatra, these are only the ravings of a "passé fanatic"

Your mileage, as always, may vary.
 
wert

You are not in the position to judge my post. I explained to ERK which is my opinion on the matter and I concluded my post with one phrase of minor importance, which is a personal opinion.

I guess that you agree with the rest of my post. I guess that you tend to believe as I do that Jesus was an Essean "monk". You didn't have any problem with that. Also, I take for granted that you agree that Josephus' and Tacitus' testimonies are reliable.

I didn't see you complaining about those aspects of my post that are basic in the whole discussion and I know that they will bring me in disagreement with some posters.

But instead of touching the essence of my post you chose to twist what I said to the final sentence in order to recite your poem.

Of course, probably you are not in the position to discuss the issue. In that case, it's better to stay out of the thread and watch the older kids playing.
 
Cleopatra said:
wert

You are not in the position to judge my post. I explained to ERK which is my opinion on the matter and I concluded my post with one phrase of minor importance, which is a personal opinion.
Ah, but a logically unsupportable opinion presented as fact.

I guess that you agree with the rest of my post. I guess that you tend to believe as I do that Jesus was an Essean "monk". You didn't have any problem with that. Also, I take for granted that you agree that Josephus' and Tacitus' testimonies are reliable.
You'd be mistaken. as usual. I notice quite clearly that upon being given an example of a religion that predates (and has greater longevity than) x-ianity, you don't have a lot to say. Must we respect the creators of Hinduism as you would have us do with x-ianity?


I didn't see you complaining about those aspects of my post that are basic in the whole discussion and I know that they will bring me in disagreement with some posters.
The other aspects have been covered at tedious length right here on these forums. No need (or desire) to re-hash.

But instead of touching the essence of my post you chose to twist what I said to the final sentence in order to recite your poem.
Wow, perhaps I'm not a sensitive enough soul to "touch the essence" of your fallacious arguments. Once again, thanks for likening my thoughts to poetry. :)

Of course, probably you are not in the position to discuss the issue.
Oh, nice assumption. And an incorrect one.

I've yet to see you effectively rebut my examples of your fallacious "logic'. And when I see fallacies used to support a point, it's no small step for me to disregard the credibility of one who relies on such suspect disocourse.

Until I see some evidence that your fallacious arguments have some factual, logical base, I'll disregard your silly claim that I'm somehow in "no position" to point out your fallacious "logic".

In that case, it's better to stay out of the thread and watch the older kids playing.
Wow, ad-hominen and now this patronizing bit of tripe. All this from someone who feels the need to press their arguments by referring to their detractors as "fanatics". (or even worse, Poets!)

Bleh.
 
triadboy said:
I reject the entire paragraph supposedly written by Josephus. The Testimonium Flavianum is a blatent insertion. Meier uses this as a source.
People this sure of themself rarely have a basis to be so. What is your argument against partial interpolation? Also, what is your argument against the second reference?
 
Hi 'stew!

Merry Xmas (A little early I know, but you don't drop past like you used to!)

I have nothing to add to this thread...
 
ReasonableDoubt said:
What is your argument against partial interpolation?

The first mention of the TF is by Eusubius in about 230 AD. All that time since Josephus wrote it - all the written arguments used to prop up Chrisitianity by earlier church fathers - and no one mentions Josephus validating Jesus - until 230 AD?!

Here's a website that seems to follow the evidence I've read elsewhere:

http://www.concentric.net/~Mullerb/appe.shtml

If one reads the TF in context with the surrounding text - it sticks out! I'm not an expert in textual examination, but even I can see this sore thumb.
 
triadboy:

I reject the entire paragraph supposedly written by Josephus. The Testimonium Flavianum is a blatent insertion. Meier uses this as a source. In my opinion, he is now off in the weeds.

That's fine... the Josephus material makes up such a small portion of Meier's work that even if you reject it I hardly think it has much of an impact on the rest of the book. I happen to think that he makes good arguments for accepting a toned down version of the TF (that whole topic probably deserves it's own thread (again), but I suppose that's up to TheERK) but even Meier himself points out that the Josephus material adds very little to our knowledge of the historical Jesus (and provides absolutely no new info that can't be found elsewhere).

The only sources one can use to 'know' the historical Jesus are the Gospels - and they disagree with each other.

Meier agrees with you, as far as the gospels being our only really useful source for info on a historical Jesus. As for them disagreeing, this shouldn't come as a surprise where historical criticism is concerned. Scholars regularly deal with disparities in written accounts when researching historical figures. There are also many points of overlap and agreement, which is what allows things to be sorted out to some degree.

I can state without reservation there has never been a miracle. Why do xian miracles warrent notice while other reported miracles are myths or the work of Satan? To believe in miracles is to suspend belief in reality.

I can state without reservation there has never been a 'bodily' resurrection. The entire xian religion is based on this "fact" and it is mistaken.

I'll agree that you can state without reservation that you *believe* there has never been a miracle, or that you have never seen compelling evidence of a miracle, but if you are going to be honest, scientific, and rational, then you have no way of legitimately declaring that there has in fact never been a miracle. That would be saying that you have proof of a negative, which we all know isn't possible. Mind you, I'm not saying that there necessarily *has* been a miracle, I just felt that that particular statement of yours oversteps the bounds of good sense and is unsupportable, and I wanted to point that out.

After all this - what do we 'know' of Jesus? Nothing.

This seems way too extreme for me. You've dismissed all of the points, arguments and research presented in Meier's book without even really addressing them (at least not here in this thread). Do you disagree with the criteria he sets up? Which points? Why? Do you disagree with his application of the criteria in specific instances?

As with most things, I think the truth lies somewhere in between -- we can certainly know more than "nothing" about Jesus, but we surely can't say that everything the gospels say about him is 100% fact.

slimshady:

Hello to you too!

Loki:

An early Merry Christmas to you as well! I've found that I get a lot more work done when I don't frequent the forum. :) Hopefully I can indulge this little bit here without reacquiring a full-fledged monkey on my back.
 
PotatoStew said:
triadboy:


I'll agree that you can state without reservation that you *believe* there has never been a miracle, or that you have never seen compelling evidence of a miracle, but if you are going to be honest, scientific, and rational, then you have no way of legitimately declaring that there has in fact never been a miracle. That would be saying that you have proof of a negative, which we all know isn't possible. Mind you, I'm not saying that there necessarily *has* been a miracle, I just felt that that particular statement of yours oversteps the bounds of good sense and is unsupportable, and I wanted to point that out.

I have to take offense at this paragraph. Although I agree that it is impossible to prove a UNIVERSAL negative, logically, there is the problem of contradiction within a physical framework. If a "miracle" has ever occurred, it, by definition, is a breach of the physical laws that drive and form the universe as we have uncovered them. And any event that contradicts a physical theory and the actual properties/phenomena on which they are modeled would cause that theory to be invalid. The very notion of a 'miracle' is '1. b : an event or effect in the physical world deviating from the laws of nature" [Merriam-Webster's Unabridged Dictionary]. Not only deviating, but, aye, to be a true miracle, not even probable within natural laws. In other words: a miracle cannot happen and the universe still remain understandable and intact. Even to consent that 'miracles' are minor and infrequent breaches of natural law would undermine any notion of evidencing one. How does one validate a miracle? You can't measure it, quantify it, experiment on it, repeat it, record it, or anything else. It is a subjective experience and therefore untenable.

I can say without any reservation that there has never been a miracle (as defined) and any supposed miracle cannot be shown to be such due to the problems stated above.

Kuroyume
 
Kuroyume

I believe that you can't base your reasoning as to whether Jesus existed ot not on the premise that miracles cannot be performed, I think that this is what potato stew wanted to show.

The fact that miracles don't happen doesn't mean that a man named Jesus didn't exist. :)
 
In reply to the original topic:

1. There is no physical evidence that Jesus the Christ existed. None. Zilch. Nada. All supposed evidence (tons and tons of wood splinters from "the cross", the Shroud of Turin, the James Ossuary, and so forth) has been shown, upon scrupulous and proper examination, to be fraudulent. This makes all possibilities of his existence very slim indeed - ranking right up there with almost all other fictional characters (not based upon factual ones).

2. Current datings of the writings of the New Testament point to minimum dates at least 60 years after the supposed crucifixion/resurrection. To write of such a monumental event so long after its occurrence is unheard of for historical authenticity and accuracy. Jesus, supposedly a well-educated, upper-class Jewish male who has been hypothesized to have travelled far and wide by scholars, never once wrote anything.

3. Paul never once recollects the life of the living Jesus. The other "accounts" have many internal and interjacent inconsistencies not consistent with first-hand recounts or even collaborated reconstruction. If there was a man that spawned the movements that eventually coalesced into what we call Christianity, his life is nowhere recounted - everything is fulfillment of prophecy, personification of credos, and a story fit for any mystery/dying-man cult of the time.

4. Removing the New Testament references leaves a paltry and oft liberally interpreted amount of extra-biblical reference to Jesus the Christ far after the actual time period. References in the NT to actual personages, places, and events contemporary with the narration lend no authenticity to the historicity of the text.

5. How would one possibly distinguish any physical evidence as particular to a supposed Jesus as recounted in the Bible? There is no need to go into any detail validating that the Roman Empire had control over the region of Judea at the time, had many difficulties with the people of the region, used crucifixion as a form of punishment for dissidents on a regular basis, and had regional governors with troops to maintain order. Also, there were many religious/cult movements and prophets and messiahs roaming between Rome and Egypt (by way of the Mediteranean shoreline along Greece, Asia, Syria, and Palestine). Judea was a distant place from civilization (Egypt, Rome, the remains of Greece and Peria); if one desired lack of verification, that was a good place for such events.

Realizing that everything in the NT is basically personification (Which part of 'virgin birth', 'water to wine', 'loaves and fishes', 'resurrection', 'crucifixion', 'raising of Lazarus', etc., fits with reality?), the only information left is that it could have been somebody living between 50 BCE and 50 CE that was the initial motivator for the movement that eventually twisted and turned, evolved and coalesced, mixed and mingled into Christianity some 50 years after that latter date, the figure of narration created in the spirit of a mystery/dying-man cult to give a voice to a somewhat disparate set of codes (Q) passed on from one religious philosophy to another no longer having any affiliation with this possible initiator.

Kuroyume
 
Wert,

If there is anything a good intelligent person should know, its "Dont argue with Cleopatra". You wouldnt want to get eaten by crocodiles now, would you?
 
(posted by todangst)

Christian historians have been bothered by the lack of historical evidence for jesus for centuries. John E. Remsburg, in his classic book The Christ: A Critical Review and Analysis of the Evidence of His Existence (The Truth Seeker Company, NY, no date, pp. 24-25), lists the following writers who lived during the time, or within a century after the time, that Jesus is supposed to have lived"

Caius Suetonius
Josephus
Philo-Judæus (see my entry on him)
Seneca
Pliny Elder
Arrian
Petronius
Dion Pruseus
Pliny Younger
Paterculus
Juvenal
Martial
Persius
Plutarch
Tacitus
Justus of Tiberius
Apollonius
Quintilian
Lucanus
Epictetus (see my entry on him)
Hermogones
Silius Italicus
Statius
Ptolemy
Appian
Phlegon
Phædrus
Valerius Maximus
Lucian
Pausanias
Florus Lucius
Quintius Curtius
Aulus Gellius
Dio Chrysostom
Columella
Valerius Flaccus
Damis
Favorinus
Lysias
Pomponius Mela
Appion of Alexandria
Theon of Smyrna
Justus of Tiberias

And, according to Remsburg, "(While) Enough of the writings of the authors named in the foregoing list remains to form a library, (no where)... in this mass of Jewish and Pagan literature, aside from two forged brief passages in the works of a Jewish author, and two disputed passages in the works of Roman writers, there is to be found no mention of Jesus Christ." Nor, we may add, do any of these authors make note of the Disciples or Apostles - increasing the embarrassment from the silence of history concerning the foundation of Christianity.

None of the gospels are contemporary accounts, they all were written by the end of the first century, and into the second.

They are all also anonymous.

So we have no first hand accounts.

And all that we do have (outside of paul's writings) is anonymous.

No one alive when Jesus supposedly lived ever mentions seeing Jesus or hearing Jesus -- or even hearing about Jesus!

They don't mention the star that heralded his birth.

They don't mention Herod's slaughter of boy babies.

They don't mention crowds gathered to hear him preach.

They don't mention his trial.

They don't mention his crucifixion.

They don't mention his resurrection.

They don't mention that his resurrection was supposedly followed by many unnamed saints who rose from graves....

They never mention anything he said, or anywhere he went, or anything
he thought, or anything he did.

No one alive when Jesus lived ever mentions him at all.

The philosopher Philo, who lived until about 50 CE and wrote of unusual sects like the Essenes, has nothing to say about Jesus.

Pliny the Elder (died 79 CE) collected data on all manner of natural and astronomical phenomena, even those which were legendary and which he himself did not necessarily regard as factual, but he records no prodigies associated with the beliefs of Christians, such as an earthquake or darkening of the skies at a crucifixion, or any star of Bethlehem.

Epictetus, the great Stoic philosopher who preached universal brotherhood to the poor and humble masses, records not a word about jesus.

Nor does Seneca, the empire's leading ethicist during the reign of Nero, make reference to such a figure.

Or other historians of the time, like Plutarch and Quintilian.

No one alive when Jesus lived ever mentions him at all.

There is NO information for later historians to draw upon. Nothing. Not a word.

All that has evolved, that could have evolved, comes from legend.

Please also see:
http://www.humanists.net/jesuspuzzle/home.htm

The astute dohtuns writes:

It is a major problem for the historicity of the popular Christian Jesus that neither he, nor any of his disciples, are ever mentioned once by any of the known contemporary historians who resided in the area where Jesus and his disciples are purported to have preached and performed miracles. That we have the work of 40 of such historians makes the Jesus claim much more shaky.

Of course, it becomes quite easy to dismiss the biblical Jesus when we try to account for the social and political upheaval purported to have been brought about by his presence and preaching. There are no governmental accounts of such events, and had such events occurred anyway, it would have been that much more likely that some of the 40 aforementioned historians would have written about the man at the center of such events. The idea of the fictional Jesus is further reinforced by the plainly contradictory accounts of his life recorded in the gospels, and that there is no mention even in the gospels of the life of the man, from his infancy to the days just prior to his death (save one suspiciously apocryphal tale from Luke) who would have been the most important individual ever to have walked the face of the earth.

The most parsimonious explanation, therefore, of the biblical account of Jesus is that he was created out of the popular political sentiments of the underclass Jewry, who were subjugated not only by Rome, but by their own people.

The wise raze writes:

Hello everyone. Its good to see so many thinkers involved in this debate over Jesus of Nazareth's existence.

I want to concentrate a little on the aforementioned "apocolyptic preachers." As I understand it from my historical research on the subject, their did exist a tribe of Jews that lived in the Cumran Valley in Palestine, slightly post of the alleged "Jesus of Nazareth" character's existence. And, this sect of Jews were opposed to traditional Judaism, as it stood in their day. They seperated themselves from the general population, and built themselves a small community in the Valley. They were exceptionally focused on Jewsih Apocalypticism, or End times. Some modern historians link them to the Essenes(but their is no definitive evidence of this). I think it may have been possible that the "Jesus" myth could have possibly evolved form a setting such as this. Such evidence to support this claim lies in a document called "Q." "Q" is a document which NT scholars think may be the original text in which the gospel of Mark was contrived, and subsequently changed and morphed into the "Jesus" tale through a Jewish method or reworking old legends called Midrashing. As I understand it, their is no literal document "Q", this conclusion was come about because of the language of the Markan gospel, and other literary constructions within its texts. It is popualrly known that the Markan gospel was the first out of the Synoptics, and the following gospels are merely "versions" of the Markan tale with various additions and reworkings(which ended up being contradictions among all of them). (For more information on this "Q" document and the Cumran residents see also The Jesus Puzzle website by Earl Dougherty, Westar Institute website, "The Dead Sea Scrolls and the Christain Myth" by Dr. Paul Allegro, and Acharya S. "The Christ Conspiracy" site for further details).

I just wanted to bring this little piece of information to the table for those of you who may or may not know about the "Q" document and the Cumran Valley Jews. These points were fascinating to me, and helped lend further insight into the Jesus Myth. Thanks everyone, Raze.

Check out this link for more...
infidelguy.com

you may also be interested in (Thomas Paine-The Age Of Reason)
 
geni said:

So I have to find a cult that has lasted 2000 years of being attacked by one of the most powerful religions on the planet (any cult in europe is going to have to have survived that)?

Judaism.
 
triadboy said:
I reject the entire paragraph supposedly written by Josephus. The Testimonium Flavianum is a blatent insertion. Meier uses this as a source. In my opinion, he is now off in the weeds. The only sources one can use to 'know' the historical Jesus are the Gospels - and they disagree with each other.

We have to dismiss that TF is an insertion because the same paragraph has been found in an Arabic version of the "Jewish Antiquities"

Meier doesn't just use the TF. He accepts that Flavius Josephus mentions Jesus and the text was just glossed up.

Also, we can't dismiss the theory that by the time Josephus wrote this he had coverted to Christianity. Josephus wasn't an ordinary person anyway. He was born a Sadducee, he claimed that after staying in the desert for three years he studied the doctrines of the Essenes and the Pharissees and he became a Pharisee.

Those who have read the whole of the "Jewish Antiquities" they must have noticed that Josephus is quite partial when he refers to the jewish sects.

Also, those who know the basics about the Jewish sects have to agree that if Christianity begun as a jewish sect( in my opinion there is no doubt about that), then there is no doubt that it had a leader.
 
First of all, welcome back PotatoStew.

Next, just to put a few elements of this discussion into perspective:

1. Josephus refers to Jesus twice, in Antiquities 18 and 20.

2. The majority scholarly view is that the reference in Antiquities 20 is essentially genuine.

3. The majority scholarly view is that the reference in Antiquities 18 is not a pure forgery.

4. The majority scholarly view favors some form of historical Jesus.

5. (Somewhat gratuitously.) No matter how many times points 2 through 4 are evoked in R&P, some people refuse to acknowledge that they have any real significance to our discussions regarding Jesus' historicity.

Rather than re-hash each element of the foregoing, I refer the reader back to this thread, especially the last couple of pages.

Obviously, it is possible that all of the academics who have concluded that the New Testament refers back to a discrete historical figure are wrong. Still, that's generally not the way to bet in matters of a scholarly nature. I've never understood entirely what is so special about the notion of a historical Jesus that it would cause people to discount so thoroughly the prevailing views that obtain among experts in the field. After all, I should think we can all agree that accepting the likelihood of a historical Jesus is in no way tantamount to accepting the theological validity of the Xian Gospels, right?
 
ceo_esq said:
I've never understood entirely what is so special about the notion of a historical Jesus that it would cause people to discount so thoroughly the prevailing views that obtain among experts in the field. After all, I should think we can all agree that accepting the likelihood of a historical Jesus is in no way tantamount to accepting the theological validity of the Xian Gospels, right?

I feel exactly the same. I don't understand why some people don't hesitate to make fool of themselves by dismissing the work of somebody who is an expert in a field.

Why atheists are so much afraid of this Jesus?
 
triadboy said:
People this sure of themself rarely have a basis to be so. What is your argument against partial interpolation? Also, what is your argument against the second reference?
The first mention of the TF is by Eusubius in about 230 AD. All that time since Josephus wrote it - all the written arguments used to prop up Chrisitianity by earlier church fathers - and no one mentions Josephus validating Jesus - until 230 AD?!
That is a horribly weak and naive argument from absence. If one were to assume a partial interpolation, the only reason why one would expect to find it referenced would be if historicity was a debated issue prior to Eusubius. Do you have any reason to think that this was the case? Where are the 2nd century CE polemics about a historical Jesus? Or, is the argument from absence only valid if selectively applied?

triadboy said:
If one reads the TF in context with the surrounding text - it sticks out! I'm not an expert in textual examination, but even I can see this sore thumb.
No, you're not an expert in textual examination. You might wish to review Kirby's site, and then respond to both of my questions.
 
If the "historical Jesus" is only mentioned in one document that most scholars take seriously, plus one probable forgery, and is mysteriously absent in every other contemporary account, isn't that incredibly strong evidence that any "historical Jesus" would have borne no meaningful resemblance to the mythical Jesus?
 
Kevin_Lowe said:
If the "historical Jesus" is only mentioned in one document that most scholars take seriously, plus one probable forgery, and is mysteriously absent in every other contemporary account, isn't that incredibly strong evidence that any "historical Jesus" would have borne no meaningful resemblance to the mythical Jesus?

Good question.

How many of the "contemporary historians" wrote about the Jewish Wars and the Jewish sects and they didn't mention Jesus?
 

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