Back to my question:
So with an equal stopping distance...if an object is moving .00001mph it would require the same stopping force as an object moving 600 mph?
Apply your theory in reverse with a stationary object, and applying a force for 10 seconds. All other factors being equal, does an increase in force result in an increased end velocity?
We have two objects A and B of equal mass m = 1 kg.
A is moving at 1 m/s and B is moving at 100 m/s constant speeds, i.e. no (net forces are acting on them.
Now you want to to stop (decelerate to 0 velocity) A and B and you evidently apply a force F on them and the result is that they stop.
Say that F = 1 N. Then the decelaration is 1 m/s² . If you apply F = 10 N, the deceleration is 10 m/s².
A stops quickly and quicker when F = 10 N than 1 N and it takes a little longer for B to stop. But both stop! And it goes quicker if you apply 10 N than 1 N. The stopping distance is shorter if you apply 10 N than 1 N.
You can probably work out exact times (seconds) and distances (meters) yourself as function of F - it is not too difficult.
It is like a car breaking on a road. If the car has higher initial velocity (100 m/s in lieu of 1 m/s) the stopping distance/time are longer. And if the road is slippery and the breaking force is smaller (1 N in lieu of 10 N) the stopping distance/time are again longer. It is all basic physics. But you always stop.
According Bazant of NWO fame, when you try to brake your car, the brake funnily acts as an accelerator and you increase speed, i.e. accelerate. It appears the reason is Bazant stepped on the wrong pedal?
Result? Full speed to hell! That's where the US admin is going today believing Bazant and NIST. Not very funny actually, but I always try to see everything from the bright side and tell my clients the truth. Oh, how many times haven't they been crying and weeping hitting their heads in the walls maintaining they did the right thing. When it was the wrong.